A 64-year-old male presents to your office with complaints of fatigue. He is generally well, takes no medications, and has not been to the physician in several years. His physical examination is unremarkable. You obtain a CBC: WBC 7,000/mm3, hemoglobin 7.4 g/dl, and platelet count 250,000/mm3. A peripheral blood smear reveals 2+ spherocytes. Haptoglobin is < 20 (low) and LDH is 300 IU/L (elevated). A direct antiglobulin test is positive.

1		Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
			A)	There are no schistocytes on peripheral blood smear, so the diagnosis of hemolytic anemia is unlikely.
			B)	The associated antibody is likely an IgG.
			C)	Medications can produce a similar clinical scenario.
			D)	This disorder may be associated with a lymphoproliferative disorder.
			E)	The patient may respond to treatment with glucocorticoids.