Site MapHelpFeedbackClinical Case 16
Clinical Case 16
(See related pages)



1

TH is a retired 70 year-old physician with rheumatoid arthritis taking gold injections and NSAIDs. He has had a prior rupture of his left biceps tendon. He calls you on a Saturday morning worried that he has broken his arm due to osteoporosis. He has recently had pain in his anterior right deltoid associated with yard work. This morning he was pushing a loaded wheelbarrow and felt a ‘pop’ and severe pain in his right upper arm. The pain has eased somewhat since. He can lift the arm and flex the elbow but notices bruising on the medial upper arm.

Which of the following is correct?
A)The patient has ruptured the tendon of the long head of his biceps.
B)X rays will show a fracture at the surgical neck of the humerus
C)This injury is commonly associated with significant weakness in the arm.
D)Surgery is commonly required to repair this injury.
E)This condition is not normally seen in persons over the age of 60.





We welcome your feedback. Please send comments and questions to: medical_education@mcgraw-hill.com.
To learn more about the book this website supports, please visit its Information Center.
(c)2005 McGraw-Hill Professional
Any use is subject to the Terms of Use and Privacy Policy.
McGraw-Hill Professional is one of the many fine businesses of The McGraw-Hill Companies.


Harrisons Internal MedicineOnline Learning Center

Home > 13. Immune System > Clinical Case 16