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1 | |
Which of the following is one cardinal rule for a workable vaccine? |
| | A) | It must last a lifetime. |
| | B) | It must contain an antigen that will provide protection but not cause the disease. |
| | C) | It must induce only the humoral immune response to be considered effective. |
| | D) | It must be administered intramuscularly to increase its effectiveness. |
| | E) | It must use live organisms in order to induce protective immunity. |
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2 | |
How long does the protection provided by immune serum globulin (ISG) last? |
| | A) | 30 minutes |
| | B) | 24 hours |
| | C) | 1-2 weeks |
| | D) | 2-3 months |
| | E) | 1 year |
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3 | |
What is the current form of treatment for a patient who has been bitten by a coral snake? |
| | A) | Immune serum globulin |
| | B) | Specific immune globulin |
| | C) | Antisera/antitoxin of horse origin |
| | D) | Immunization |
| | E) | Supportive care |
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4 | |
Which of the following is not a quality of an effective vaccine? |
| | A) | It should require periodic boosters to maintains its effectiveness. |
| | B) | It should stimulate the production of memory cells. |
| | C) | It should stimulate both a humoral and cell-mediated immune response. |
| | D) | It should protect against the natural form of the pathogen. |
| | E) | It should be easy to administer. |
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5 | |
The majority of licensed vaccines today consist of all but which of the following antigenic preparations? |
| | A) | Killed, whole bacteria or viruses |
| | B) | Live, attenuated bacteria or viruses |
| | C) | Acellular antigens derived from bacteria or viruses |
| | D) | Active toxins derived from bacteria |
| | E) | Recombinant bacteria, viruses, or antigens |
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6 | |
What is not a method of attenuation? |
| | A) | Long-term cultivation of the microbe |
| | B) | Treatment of the microbial culture with heat, radiation, or formalin |
| | C) | Selection of mutant strains of the microbe |
| | D) | Removal of critical microbial virulence factors |
| | E) | Passage of the microbe through unnatural hosts or tissues |
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7 | |
What is one disadvantage of using attenuated vaccines? |
| | A) | They require fewer doses and boosters than other types of vaccines. |
| | B) | They provide long-lasting protection. |
| | C) | They produce an infection following vaccination. |
| | D) | The organisms multiply following vaccination. |
| | E) | The organisms can mutate back to a virulent form following vaccination. |
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8 | |
Under what conditions is an acellular or subunit vaccine produced? |
| | A) | When the causative agent of infection is known |
| | B) | When the exact composition of the antigenic determinant is known |
| | C) | When the exact antigenic determinants that stimulate immunity are known |
| | D) | When the organism produces a weakly antigenic toxin |
| | E) | When the DNA sequence of the microbe is known |
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9 | |
If an anti-idiotype vaccine was utilized, a patient would be injected with what component? |
| | A) | Purified microbial antigen |
| | B) | Heat-killed whole microbial cells |
| | C) | Purified antibodies against the microbial antigen |
| | D) | Anti-idiotypic antibodies |
| | E) | DNA corresponding to the microbial antigen |
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10 | |
Why is using an adjuvant in a vaccine preparation advantageous? |
| | A) | It prevents pain during the injection. |
| | B) | It alleviates the necessity of booster doses of the vaccine. |
| | C) | It enhances the immunogenicity of the antigen. |
| | D) | It helps prevent back-mutations of attenuated microbes. |
| | E) | It prevents local reactions at the injection site. |
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11 | |
Why are non-immunized school age children often protected from vaccine-preventable diseases such as diphtheria, measles, and polio? |
| | A) | Because they are still protected by maternal antibodies. |
| | B) | Because the majority of children are immunized against these diseases (herd immunity). |
| | C) | Because these diseases have been eradicated. |
| | D) | Because such diseases exist only in underdeveloped countries. |
| | E) | Because they are not part of the group targeted by these infectious microbes. |
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12 | |
The presence and concentration of antibodies against a known antigen can be detected in all but which of the following clinical samples? |
| | A) | Feces |
| | B) | Serum |
| | C) | Urine |
| | D) | Saliva |
| | E) | Cerebrospinal fluid |
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13 | |
What term is defined as the ability of a test to detect small concentrations of an antigen or antibody? |
| | A) | Serology |
| | B) | Agglutination |
| | C) | Specificity |
| | D) | Titer |
| | E) | Sensitivity |
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14 | |
What type of immunologic reaction occurs when specific antibodies are mixed with whole cell antigens? |
| | A) | Agglutination |
| | B) | Precipitation |
| | C) | Immunodiffusion |
| | D) | Complement fixation |
| | E) | Immunoassay |
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15 | |
What is the agglutinogen in a viral hemagglutination test? |
| | A) | Antibodies |
| | B) | Antigens |
| | C) | White blood cells |
| | D) | Patient serum |
| | E) | Red blood cells |
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16 | |
The double diffusion method allows for disease identification and diagnosis and is an application of what immunological technique? |
| | A) | Agglutination |
| | B) | Precipitation |
| | C) | Immunoassay |
| | D) | Fluorescent antibody test |
| | E) | Complement fixation |
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17 | |
What is the test used to verify HIV-positive test results obtained by ELISA? |
| | A) | Ouchterlony test |
| | B) | Immunoelectrophoresis |
| | C) | Southern blot |
| | D) | Western blot |
| | E) | Counterimmunoelectrophoresis |
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18 | |
Complement fixation testing requires all but which of the following components? |
| | A) | Antibody |
| | B) | Antigen |
| | C) | Complement |
| | D) | Sensitized sheep red blood cells |
| | E) | Streptolysin toxin |
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19 | |
What indicates a positive reaction in the complement fixation test? |
| | A) | Antigen-antibody precipitation |
| | B) | Solubilization of sheep red blood cells |
| | C) | No hemolysis of sheep red blood cells |
| | D) | Hemolysis of sheep red blood cells |
| | E) | Agglutination of sheep red blood cells |
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20 | |
Why is serotyping used? |
| | A) | To identify, classify, and subgroup certain bacteria into categories |
| | B) | To determine the susceptibility of sheep red blood cells to complement |
| | C) | To identify and diagnose a disease |
| | D) | To verify the presence of specific antibodies that react with specific antigens |
| | E) | To identify persons of the same blood type |
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21 | |
What is the fundamental tool in immunofluorescence testing? |
| | A) | Specific antigen |
| | B) | Red blood cells |
| | C) | Complement |
| | D) | Fluorescent monoclonal antibody |
| | E) | Fluorescent polyclonal antibody |
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22 | |
In the indirect immunofluorescence method, if the patient's serum contains IgM antibodies, the fluorescent antibody can be a member of all but which class of antibodies? |
| | A) | IgM |
| | B) | IgA |
| | C) | IgD |
| | D) | IgG |
| | E) | IgE |
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23 | |
What reagent is quantified when performing an indirect ELISA? |
| | A) | Antigen |
| | B) | Antibodies in patient's serum |
| | C) | Fluorescent antibody |
| | D) | Chromagen |
| | E) | Complement |
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24 | |
When performing a capture ELISA, what must be different about the antibodies used? |
| | A) | The antigen each antibody recognizes |
| | B) | The class of antibody each antibody belongs to |
| | C) | The antigenic determinant each antibody recognizes |
| | D) | The avidity to which each antibody binds to the antigen |
| | E) | The concentration of each antibody |
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25 | |
What is injected into a patient when the tuberculin skin test is performed? |
| | A) | Complement |
| | B) | Monoclonal antibodies |
| | C) | Sheep red blood cells |
| | D) | Polyclonal antibodies |
| | E) | Antigen |
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