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Multiple Choice Quiz
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1

Allergy is an exaggerated immune response that is manifested by what reaction?
A)Immunopathology
B)Hypersensitivity
C)Inflammation
D)Fever
E)Autoimmunity
2

Which of the categories of hypersensitivities involves a T-cell response?
A)Type I
B)Type II
C)Type III
D)Type IV
E)Types I-IV
3

Which category of hypersensitivities is IgE-mediated?
A)Type I
B)Type II
C)Type III
D)Type IV
E)Types II and III
4

What type of allergens are the most allergenic?
A)Carbohydrates
B)Proteins
C)Nucleic acids
D)Fats
E)Haptens
5

What sets the stage for the reactions that occur upon repeated exposure to the same allergen in a type I hypersensitivity reaction?
A)The release of the allergenic particles into the tissue fluids and lymphatics
B)Recognition of the allergen by B and T cells
C)Proliferation and differentiation of B cells into plasma cells
D)Secretion of IgE by plasma cells
E)Binding of IgE to mast cells and basophils
6

Mast cells have important roles in the development of allergies. This is due to all but which of the following reasons.
A)Their tendency to degranulate
B)Their cytoplasmic granules that contain physiologically active chemicals
C)Their ubiquitous location in tissues
D)Their ability to produce IgE
E)Their capacity to bind IgE during sensitization
7

What is the most abundant and fastest acting cytokine released by mast cells?
A)Serotonin
B)Histamine
C)Bradykinin
D)Leukotriene
E)Platelet-activating factor
8

What differs between atopy and anaphylaxis?
A)The allergen that triggers the response
B)The site of the reaction
C)The concentrations of the chemical mediators released
D)The organ systems targeted by the chemical mediators
E)The types of chemical mediators released
9

What is injected into patients undergoing allergic desensitization?
A)IgG antibodies
B)IgE antibodies
C)Monoclonal antibodies against IgE
D)Corticosteroids
E)Pure allergen to which the patient is allergic
10

A person with type A blood has what type of ABO antibodies in their plasma?
A)Anti-O
B)Anti-A
C)Anti-B
D)Anti-A and Anti-B
E)Neither Anti-A nor Anti-B
11

Why are people with type O blood known as universal donors?
A)Because antibodies against A and B antigens are not present in their plasma.
B)Because their plasma contains antibodies against both A and B antigens.
C)Because A and B antigens are present on their red blood cells.
D)Because neither A nor B antigens are present on their red blood cells.
E)Because type O blood is the most common blood type in the United States.
12

The maternal antibodies that cross the placenta and lead to the development of erythroblastosis fetalis are of what class?
A)IgM
B)IgA
C)IgD
D)IgG
E)IgE
13

In what manner does a type III hypersensitivity reaction differ from a type II hypersensitivity reaction?
A)The antigens involved in a type III reaction are not bound to a cell's surface, while those involved in a type II reaction are bound to the surface.
B)Type III is an immediate hypersensitivity, while type II is a delayed hypersensitivity reaction.
C)Type III hypersensitivities involve IgE, while type II hypersensitivities involve IgG and IgM.
D)Type III hypersensitivities are T-cell mediated, while type II hypersensitivities are B-cell mediated.
E)Type III hypersensitivities involve complement, while type II hypersensitivities do not.
14

All but which of the following statements characterizes an Arthus reaction?
A)It is a systemic reaction.
B)It depends on the formation of IgG, IgM, or IgA antibodies.
C)The onset of symptoms is delayed.
D)Large doses of antigen are required for its initiation.
E)It is a localized reaction.
15

Which theory on the origination of autoimmune diseases states that type I diabetes is triggered by a viral infection?
A)Theory of immune deficiency
B)Molecular mimicry
C)Clonal selection theory
D)Sequestered antigen theory
E)Type III hypersensitivity
16

Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?
A)SLE
B)Type I diabetes
C)Serum sickness
D)Rheumatoid arthritis
E)Multiple sclerosis
17

A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
A)Type I
B)Type II
C)Type III
D)Type IV
E)Types II and III
18

What cells initially recognize grafted foreign tissue and begin the process of rejection?
A)Helper T cells
B)B cells
C)Macrophages
D)Stem cells
E)Cytotoxic T cells
19

When a person consents to be an organ donor upon his/her death, what is the most likely procedure that will be performed with the donated organs?
A)Xenograft
B)Allograft
C)Isograft
D)Autograft
E)Malograft
20

Which of the listed immunodeficiencies is typically more devastating?
A)Phagocytic defects
B)Complement defects
C)Granulocyte defects
D)B cell defects
E)T cell defects
21

Although not yet a reality, scientists hope to use what procedure to treat both X-linked and ADA types of SCID?
A)Passive immunotherapy
B)Gene therapy
C)Desensitization
D)Bone marrow transplant
E)Chemotherapy
22

What are cancers that arise from embryonic connective tissue known as?
A)Sarcomas
B)Benign
C)Malignant
D)Neoplasias
E)Carcinomas
23

Human papillomavirus inserts its genome into a host chromosome, which disrupts usual cellular growth controls. This virus is strongly implicated in the development of what?
A)T-cell leukemia
B)Burkitt lymphoma
C)Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
D)Liver cancer
E)Cervical cancer
24

What is the name of the cellular chemical that controls phases of mitosis and cell growth?
A)Cyclosporine
B)Interleukin-2
C)Cyclin
D)Prostaglandin D1
E)GTP
25

The primary types of cells that operate in surveillance and destruction of tumor cells are cytotoxic T cells, NK cells, and what other cell type?
A)Macrophages
B)Dendritic cells
C)Neutrophils
D)Eosinophils
E)Monocytes







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