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Multiple Choice
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1
The nucleotide change ________ is an example of a transversion, while the nucleotide change ________ is an example of a transition.
A)A→G; C→G
B)C→G; A→G
C)T→C; A→G
D)C→T; G→A
E)G→C; C→G
2
Which type of mutation is most likely to revert?
A)deletion
B)translocation
C)inversion
D)transposition
E)transition
3
Which type of mutation is least likely to revert?
A)deletion
B)translocation
C)inversion
D)transposition
E)transition
4
The hydrolysis of an -NH2 group from a base is called ________, while intercalating agents such as acridine orange function as mutagens by causing ________:
A)deamination; transversions
B)deamination; deletions or insertions
C)excision repair; deletions or insertions
D)excision repair; transversions
E)deletion; transitions
5
The fluctuation test of Luria and Delbruck established that:
A)Bacterial resistance to phages and other bactericides is the result of mutations.
B)Mutations arise as a directed response to environmental change.
C)Mutations occur spontaneously as a result of random processes that can happen at any time and anywhere in the genome.
D)In E. coli, the number of mutants per tube was relatively constant.
E)a and c
6
Mutations that reduce the function encoded by the wild-type allele are known as ________, while mutations that eliminate all function are known as ________:
A)null mutations; neomorphic mutations
B)hypomorphic mutations; null mutations
C)hypermorphic mutations; hypomorphic mutations
D)conditional mutations; null mutations
E)neomorphic mutations; null mutations
7
A conditional bacterial mutant is unable to methylate DNA at higher temperatures. What happens when you shift bacteria to these higher temperatures?
A)the new DNA strand is more likely to contain errors
B)the older DNA strand is more likely to contain errors
C)the rate of mutation goes up
D)a and c
E)b and c
8
Duplication of multiple three-nucleotide repeats is responsible for:
A)sickle-cell anemia
B)xeroderma pigmentosum
C)alkaptonuria
D)trisomy 21
E)fragile X syndrome
9
Which of the following are parts of the Ames test for mutagenicity?
A)auxotrophic bacteria are converted to prototrophs that survive.
B)prototrophic bacteria are converted to auxotrophs that survive.
C)cells are treated with no mutagen and only those with mutations survive.
D)a and b
E)a and c
10
In an Ames test for mutagenicity, rat liver enzymes are accidentally excluded from the compound under test. What can you say about the results?
A)the mutation rate will probably rise
B)the mutation rate will probably decline
C)the results are less relevant to mammals
D)the results are less relevant to bacteria
E)no mutations will form
11
Assume that a new antidepressant is developed. The structure is novel and is tested using the Ames test for mutagenicity. The following results are obtained:


SampleNumber of his+
revertant colonies

distilled water2
distilled water + rat liver enzymes3
antidepressant37
antidepressant + rat liver enzymes39

What conclusion is most consistent with these data?
A)the drug and its conversion products are not mutagenic.
B)rat liver enzymes are mutagenic.
C)the drug is not mutagenic but can be converted into strong mutagens.
D)the drug is mutagenic and can be converted into strong mutagens.
E)the drug and its conversion products are equally mutagenic.
12
A stock of T4 phage is diluted by a factor of 10-7 and 0.1 ml of it is mixed with 0.1 ml of 108 E. coli/ml and 2.5 ml melted agar, and poured on the surface of an agar petri dish. The next day, 100 plaques are visible. What is the concentration (in plaque-forming units/ml) of T4 phages in the original T4 stock?
A)107 pfu (plaque-forming units)/ml
B)108 pfu/ml
C)109 pfu/ml
D)1010 pfu/ml
E)1011 pfu/ml
13
Shown below are the results of a series of coinfections using T4 rII- strains similar to those employed by Benzer in his deletion mapping experiment. Each strain contains a different deletion mutation. The ability to produce wild-type progeny phage is indicated by (+), (0) indicates no wild-type progeny.

 ABCDE

A0++00
B+0+0+
C++0+0
D00+0+
E0+0+0


Indicate the order that is most consistent with these data.

A)BEDCA
B)CEADB
C)ABCDE
D)CADBE
E)ACBDE
14
Mutations that are in the same gene and do not complement each other are:
A)a complementation group
B)alleles
C)deletions
D)a and b
E)none of the above
15
Assume four strains (A-D) of pure-breeding stippled lettuce have been isolated. Given the results of the following crosses:

A X C = stippled
A X B = wild type
A X D = wild type
B X C = wild type
B X D = stippled
C X D = wild type

What are the complementation groups for genes A-D?

A)A,B and D,C
B)A,C and B, D
C)A,D and C,B
D)A,B,C and D
E)A,C,D and B
16
Assume 8 different strains of mouse have been isolated, each showing a recessive tail phenotype. Crosses are performed as follows; (+) indicates wild type, (0) indicates the behavioral trait.

 ABCDEFGH
A00++++++
B0++++++
C0+0+0+
D0++++
E0+0+
F0++
G0+
H0


Based on these crosses, how many different genes are present?

A)1
B)3
C)4
D)5
E)8
17
Assume 8 different strains of mouse have been isolated, each showing a recessive spinning behavior. Crosses are performed as follows; (+) indicates wild type, (0) indicates the behavioral trait.

 ABCDEFGH
A0++00++0
B00++0++
C0++0++
D00++0
E0++0
F0++
G0+
H0


If you want to collect mutants for fine structure mapping, for which group (containing the gene listed) do you need more mutant strains?

A)A
B)F
C)H
D)B
E)G
18
Consider the pathway for the synthesis of the amino acid arginine in Neurospora:

  ARG-F   ARG-G   ARG-H  
ornithine citrulline succinate arginine   e e  


Mutant strains of Neurospora are grown in minimal media with supplements as follows. Each mutant strain carries only a single mutation. Growth is shown by (+), no growth is shown by (0).


Supplements

mutant
strain
nothing ornithine citrulline succinate arginine

a 0 0 0 0 +
b 0 0 0 + +
c 0 0 + + +



Indicate the correct strain / defective gene pairing.

A)strain a / ARG-G
B)strain a / ARG-F
C)strain b / ARG-G
D)strain c / ARG-H
E)strain c / ARG-G
19
Assume that a series of compounds has been discovered in Neurospora. Compounds A-F appear to be members of an enzyme pathway. Several mutations have been identified and strains 1-5 each contains a single mutation. Shown below are 5 possible pathways. Choose the pathway that best fits the data presented. [growth in minimal media with supplements is shown by (+), no growth is shown by (0)]

 media supplement

strainABCDEF

100+++0
2+0+++0
3000++0
4000+00
5+0++++



A)DECAFB
B)BFACED
C)BAFCED
D)DECFAB
E)CFBDEA
20
What is the principal determinant of overall protein structure?
A)the carboxyl group.
B)the amino group
C)peptide bonds
D)amino acid sequence
E)none of the above
21
An amino acid substitution in a protein can have:
A)a large effect on protein structure
B)a small effect on protein structure
C)little to no effect on protein structure
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
22
An observable phenotype may arise from a change in:
A)the amino acid sequence
B)the control of protein expression
C)the amino acid sequence of an interacting subunit
D)all of the above
E)a and c
23
A null allele can be dominant to the fully functional wild-type allele due to:
A)haploinsufficiency
B)codominance
C)incomplete dominance
D)neomorphism
E)not true, a null allele is always recessive to a fully functional wild-type allele
24
Gene evolution is best illustrated by:
A)the rhodopsin gene family
B)inborn errors of metabolism
C)X-linked traits
D)sickle cell anemia
E)xeroderma pigmentosum
25
Assume that for a given gene a mutation creates an allele that functions as a partially dominant negative as follows. The gene codes for a protein that forms a dimer within the cell. If one of the subunits has the mutant structure, the entire protein is 25% active. If both subunits are mutant, the enzyme is inactive. For a heterozygous individual, what percent of the normal activity is present in cells?
A)12.5%
B)25%
C)37.5%
D)50%
E)75%







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