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Multiple Choice Quiz
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1
The bones of the upper arm are classified as _____ bones.
A)short
B)long
C)irregular
D)flat
2
The patella is classified as a/an _____ bone by some anatomists.
A)short
B)flat
C)sesamoid
D)irregular
3
The long shaft of a bone such as the femur is called its ______.
A)epiphysis
B)epiphyseal plate
C)periosteum
D)diaphysis
4
The _____ allows a bone to increase its diameter during periods of growth.
A)diaphysis
B)periosteum
C)endosteum
D)epiphysis
5
The articular ends of long bones are comprised of _____ tissue.
A)hyaline cartilage
B)fibrous
C)hematopoietic
D)bone
6
Spongy bone is also referred to as _____ bone.
A)cancellous
B)compact
C)cortical
D)fibrous
7
The area of a bone that produces most of the hematopoietic tissue is the _____.
A)periosteum
B)bone marrow
C)process
D)endosteum
8
The center of each osteon contains the _____.
A)osteoblasts
B)Volkmann canal
C)Haversian canal
D)lacunae
9
Osteons have a _____, which provides a means of communication between them.
A)blood vessel
B)osteonic canal
C)Volkmann canal
D)canaliculi network
10
Which of these developed by intramembranous ossification?
A)femur
B)frontal bone
C)ulna
D)radius
11
During osteogenesis, which of the following cells would appear first?
A)fibroblast
B)osteocyte
C)osteoblast
D)osteoclast
12
Which of these is the most differentiated and oldest?
A)fibroblast
B)osteoblast
C)osteocyte
D)chondroblast
13
Which bone developed by endochondral ossification?
A)tibia
B)parietal
C)occipital
D)temporal
14
The _____ represents an area for growth in the length of a long bone.
A)diaphysis
B)epiphysis
C)epiphyseal disk
D)periosteum
15
The _____ contain enzymes capable of breaking down the calcium matrix of bone tissue.
A)osteoblasts
B)osteoclasts
C)fibroblasts
D)osteogenic cells
16
When does ossification begin in a developing fetus?
A)6th month
B)30th day
C)3rd month
D)4th month
17
When do secondary ossification centers appear in the epiphyses?
A)sixth month fetus
B)birth to five years
C)three year old
D)eighth fetal month
18
When do the bones of the sternum become completely ossified?
A)5 years
B)12 years
C)20 years
D)25 years
19
Most cases of bone cancer probably involve an increase in the activity of the _____ cells.
A)osteoblast
B)osteocyte
C)osteoclast
D)fibroblast
20
During remodeling, about _____% of bone calcium is exchanged each year.
A)1
B)4
C)10
D)0.5
21
The main factor which facilitates the movement of calcium through a cell membrane is _____.
A)growth hormone
B)the amount of calcium
C)osmotic pressure
D)vitamin D
22
Vitamin D deficiency in an adult causes the condition known as _____.
A)rickets
B)osteoporosis
C)osteomalacia
D)giantism
23
The most important vitamin required for proper bone resorption and modeling is _____.
A)A
B)B12
C)C
D)D
24
Vitamin _____ is required to produce the organic matrix that allows bones to be pliable or hold teeth in their sockets.
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
25
An excess of pituitary growth hormone will result in a condition of _____ if first noted in an adult.
A)dwarfism
B)acromegaly
C)giantism
D)osteoporosis
26
A deficiency of _____ hormone could result in reduced physical size as well as mental retardation.
A)growth
B)thyroid
C)pituitary
D)parathyroid
27
The _____ hormones have an effect of increasing bone and muscle mass, especially evident at puberty.
A)growth
B)thyroid
C)sex
D)adrenal
28
An increase in the mass of bone tissue caused by physical stress is termed bone _____.
A)hypertrophy
B)osteomalacia
C)atrophy
D)cancer
29
A _____ fracture occurs when the broken bone is exposed to the outside by an opening in the skin.
A)pathologic
B)simple
C)traumatic
D)compound
30
Which is the first to occur following a bone fracture?
A)migration of fibroblasts
B)formation of a hematoma
C)osteoblast proliferation
D)development of granulation tissue
31
The callus that forms around a bone fracture is comprised of _____ tissue.
A)bone
B)hyaline cartilage
C)fibrocartilage
D)granulation
32
What is the final stage of healing following a fracture?
A)osteoclast remodeling
B)formation of granulation tissue
C)formation of the callus
D)osteoblast deposition
33
A forceps is an example of a _____ lever arrangement.
A)first-class
B)second-class
C)third-class
D)fulcrum
34
When the arm is straightened at the elbow, the bones and muscles are acting as a _____ lever.
A)first-class
B)misaligned
C)second-class
D)third-class
35
The origin of blood cells is the _____.
A)bone marrow
B)yolk sac
C)spleen
D)liver
36
Which of the following produce erythrocytes in an adult?
A)spleen
B)liver
C)bone marrow
D)lymph nodes
37
The color of the red bone marrow is mainly the result of _____.
A)blood
B)hemoglobin
C)fat tissue
D)iron
38
Which type of bone is the primary source of red marrow in an adult?
A)irregular
B)long
C)short
D)flat
39
The most prevalent salt in bone matrix is _____.
A)calcium
B)hydroxyapatite
C)phosphate
D)sodium chloride
40
Which of the following require the least calcium for normal functioning?
A)bone matrix
B)nerve tissue
C)muscles
D)blood clotting
41
Which of the following is not a main factor in the development of osteoporosis?
A)diet deficient in calcium
B)lack of exercise
C)normal aging
D)hormone deficiencies
42
Bone salts comprise ____% of the bone by weight.
A)10
B)50
C)70
D)98
43
There are a total of _____ bones in the entire skeleton.
A)200
B)80
C)126
D)206
44
Which of the following is an axial bone?
A)femur
B)vertebra
C)ilium
D)tibia
45
Which of the following is an appendicular bone?
A)frontal
B)ethmoid
C)ulna
D)sacrum
46
Which bone has no direct bony articulation with the skeleton?
A)hyoid
B)manubrium
C)patella
D)phalange
47
The _____ bone supports the lower jaw structures such as the tongue.
A)mandible
B)temporal
C)maxilla
D)hyoid
48
The pectoral girdle is comprised of the clavicle and _____.
A)ribs
B)ulna
C)scapula
D)os coxa
49
The following are terms related to the pelvic girdle except which one?
A)os coxa
B)innominate
C)sacrum
D)ilium
50
Which of the following does not belong with the rest?
A)sacrum
B)coccyx
C)femur
D)os coxa
51
The term for finger bones is _____.
A)carpal
B)phalange
C)metacarpal
D)tarsal
52
How many phalanges are there in the body?
A)14
B)28
C)56
D)7
53
The coronal suture separates the _____ from parietal bones.
A)frontal
B)temporal
C)occipital
D)ethmoid
54
Which of the following is not a bone process?
A)trochanter
B)tubercle
C)tuberosity
D)fossa
55
What is the largest foramen in the body?
A)foramen magnum
B)optic foramen
C)obturator
D)mandibular
56
The cheekbone is called the _____ primarily.
A)mandible
B)zygomatic
C)maxilla
D)orbit
57
Which of the following is not a cranial bone?
A)frontal
B)lacrimal
C)sphenoid
D)ethmoid
58
Which of the following does not contain a sinus?
A)ethmoid
B)sphenoid
C)frontal
D)occipital
59
There are _____ bones that make up the cranium.
A)6
B)7
C)8
D)9
60
What is the significance of the supraorbital foramen?
A)attachment of muscles
B)passage of blood vessels
C)contain the eye
D)is a bone articulation
61
The _____ suture separates the occipital from parietal bones.
A)lambdoidal
B)coronal
C)sagittal
D)squamous
62
Which bone contains the ear structures?
A)parietal
B)maxillary
C)temporal
D)sphenoid
63
Which bone has the mandibular fossa?
A)mandible
B)maxilla
C)ethmoid
D)temporal
64
Which sinus, or air cell area, has the potential of having a very serious and painful inflammation that could spread to the brain?
A)sphenoid
B)mastoid
C)ethmoid
D)frontal
65
What is the location of the pituitary gland?
A)ethmoid sinuses
B)parietal bone
C)foramen magnum
D)sella turcica
66
Which bone has the crista galli projection?
A)ethmoid
B)sphenoid
C)frontal
D)maxilla
67
The nasal septum is comprised of the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and the _____.
A)maxilla
B)vomer
C)nasal bone
D)lacrimal bone
68
The hard palate is made of the palatine and _____ bones.
A)mandible
B)ethmoid
C)sphenoid
D)maxilla
69
The _____ is the area that houses the teeth.
A)mandibular fossa
B)alveolar process
C)maxillary fossa
D)mental fossa
70
The spinal nerves will exit from the _____ foramina.
A)spinal
B)intervertebral
C)transverse
D)vertebral
71
What is found only on the cervical vertebrae?
A)spinous process
B)transverse process
C)transverse foramen
D)lamina
72
The first vertebra is called the _____.
A)axis
B)atlas
C)cervical
D)dens
73
The _____ can be felt during a vaginal examination and be used for obstetric measurements.
A)coccyx
B)sacroiliac symphysis
C)sacral promontory
D)sacral hiatus
74
A lateral deviation of the alignment of the vertebral column is called a _____.
A)kyphosis
B)lordosis
C)scoliosis
D)slipped disk
75
Which is the largest of the tarsal bones?
A)cuboid
B)navicular
C)calcaneus
D)lateral cuneiform







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