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Practice Quiz
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1
As described in "Mary Breckinridge," Mary Breckinridge focused on serving the needs of the:
A)Indians in the Southwest.
B)urban poor.
C)rural poor.
D)blacks in the South.
2
As described in "Hospitals Were for the Really Sick," the reasons people used to be hospitalized included all of the following except that they:
A)needed surgery.
B)were in a bad accident.
C)were elderly and near death.
D)were having a baby.
3
As related in "Hospitals Were for the Really Sick," exploratory surgery is performed less often in modern times because:
A)most insurance plans will not cover exploratory surgery.
B)machinery is now available that shows what is inside a patient's body.
C)so many doctors are specialists and are not trained in this technique.
D)antibiotics generally make it unnecessary.
4
In the past, according to "Hospitals Were for the Really Sick," hypodermic needles had to be sharpened because they were used over and over.
A)True
B)False
5
As stated in "Jane Delano," the mission of Jane Delano was to:
A)have nurses recognized as military officers.
B)raise the status of male nurses.
C)increase the pay of nurses.
D)develop an efficient reserve of Red Cross nurses for military service.
6
As cited in "An End to Angels," all of the following phrases reinforce the "virtue script" view of nurses except:
A)born to help others.
B)saving lives is serious business.
C)lifting spirits, touching lives.
D)nurses care for America.
7
As underlined in "An End to Angels," often the real importance behind a nurse's conversation with a patient is that the:
A)patient knows he or she is being cared for.
B)nurse is able to relay the doctor's instructions in language more easily understood by the patient.
C)nurse is often able to reassure the family as well as the patient, with the additional benefit of saving the doctor's valuable time.
D)nurse is able to discover such information as whether or not the patient understands how to take medication, has support at home, or is anxious.
8
As noted in "An End to Angels," author Charles Dickens portrayed nurses as angels of mercy in his novel Martin Chuzzlewit.
A)True
B)False
9
As detailed in "Delores O'Hara," Delores O'Hara was the first nurse:
A)to serve in combat in Vietnam.
B)recruited by NASA.
C)to become an astronaut.
D)to reach the rank of general.
10
As brought out in "Shots Heard `Round the World," the development of polio vaccine has had the effect of:
A)nearly eradicating the disease.
B)limiting the disease to adults.
C)confining the disease to Europe.
D)eliminating paralysis from polio.
11
As portrayed in "Linda Richards," Linda Richards:
A)founded the American Red Cross.
B)developed health programs for the rural poor.
C)recruited nurses for the military services.
D)established the importance of training for nurses.
12
As given in "Susie Walking Bear Yellowtail," Susie Yellowtail was particularly interested in:
A)bringing health services to urban Indians.
B)uniting the tribes of the Great Plains.
C)improving healthcare conditions on Indian reservations.
D)Montana politics.
13
As noted in "Lillian Wald," Lillian Wald is considered to be:
A)a pioneer of frontier nursing.
B)the founder of public health nursing.
C)the driving force behind the establishment of the American Red Cross.
D)the first American school nurse.
14
The invisible effects of negative judgments on the part of healthcare providers with regard to patients who use illicit substances, as put forth in "The Ethical, Legal and Social Context of Harm Reduction," include all of the following except:
A)lost opportunities for providing timely health care.
B)a tendency to overlook misuse of legal substances.
C)lack of attention to underlying social conditions that contribute to poor health.
D)further marginalization of individuals who use illicit substances.
15
According to "The Ethical, Legal and Social Context of Harm Reduction," harm-reduction strategies were first developed in response to:
A)the outbreak of HIV/AIDS.
B)rising crime rates associated with drug-seeking behaviors.
C)improvements in drug-treatment strategies.
D)the growing number of individuals imprisoned for drug-related, non-violent crimes.
16
Often, as pointed out in "The Ethical, Legal and Social Context of Harm Reduction," individuals suspected of misusing substances are labeled as drug seeking and lacking in personal responsibility in healthcare settings.
A)True
B)False
17
As presented in "Dialysis: Prolonging Life or Prolonging Dying?", discussion of advanced-care planning should be undertaken with patients and their families:
A)prior to the commencement of dialysis.
B)as soon as dialysis has controlled the most acute symptoms.
C)when dialysis begins to be less effective.
D)as soon as the patient questions his or her long-term prospects.
18
Patients, as explained in "Dialysis: Prolonging Life or Prolonging Dying?", generally opt to discontinue dialysis for all of the following reasons except:
A)depression.
B)the perception that they are getting better.
C)chronic failure to thrive.
D)unacceptable quality of life.
19
The most frequent cause of death for dialysis patients in Australia, as noted in "Dialysis: Prolonging Life or Prolonging Dying?", is the decision to discontinue dialysis.
A)True
B)False
20
Local Research Ethics Committees (LRECs), as described in "Being a Research Participant," have often been criticized for:
A)not considering the potential unintended consequences of research.
B)overlooking fundamental flaws in research proposals.
C)requiring excessively large study samples.
D)lacking understanding of qualitative research.
21
According to "Being a Research Participant," in the United Kingdom, strict guidelines have been established to provide research oversight in response to:
A)a number of research-related deaths in past decades.
B)the atrocities committed during World War II and called research.
C)accusations of data manipulation among healthcare professionals.
D)public concerns over the validity of government-sponsored research.
22
When patients are used as data sources for research projects, as pointed out in "Being a Research Participant," nurses in clinical practice have the additional responsibility of fulfilling their duty of care requirements.
A)True
B)False
23
According to "Exploring Ethical, Legal, and Professional Issues with the Mentally Ill on Death Row," 94 percent of executions carried out worldwide in 2004 took place in all of the following countries except:
A)Iran.
B)South Africa.
C)Vietnam.
D)the United States.
24
The U.S. Supreme Court, as reported in "Exploring Ethical, Legal, and Professional Issues with the Mentally Ill on Death Row," established a prohibition against killing the insane based on:
A)due process.
B)the right to privacy.
C)international custom and precedent.
D)the prohibition against cruelty.
25
As pointed out in "Exploring Ethical, Legal, and Professional Issues with the Mentally Ill on Death Row," just over half of the world's countries retain use of the death penalty.
A)True
B)False
26
Laws governing consent in medical settings in Great Britain, as put forth in "Covert Medication in Older Adults Who Lack Decision-Making Capacity," assign the greatest importance to:
A)privacy.
B)bodily integrity.
C)individual cultural or religious practices.
D)future mental capacity.
27
According to "Covert Medication in Older Adults Who Lack Decision-Making Capacity," experience suggests that patients who might fail capacity assessments are often encouraged to accept medication:
A)as a placebo.
B)to satisfy family members.
C)to reduce medical liability.
D)for staff convenience.
28
A common consequence of dementia, as stated in "Covert Medication in Older Adults Who Lack Decision-Making Capacity," is that the capacity for consent can fluctuate over time.
A)True
B)False
29
As stated in "Arresting Drug-Resistant Organisms," community-acquired MRSA, in contrast with hospital-acquired MRSA, most often causes:
A)pneumonia.
B)gastrointestinal infection.
C)soft-tissue infections.
D)severe respiratory difficulties.
30
According to "Arresting Drug-Resistant Organisms," the people at higher risk for community-acquired MRSA include all of the following groups except:
A)children in daycare.
B)prisoners.
C)nurses.
D)amateur and professional athletes.
31
As noted in "Arresting Drug-Resistant Organisms," VRSA and VISA are of particular concern because patients with these infections cannot be treated with either vancomycin or methicillin, and these infections may become resistant to other antibiotics as well.
A)True
B)False
32
According to "Reduce the Risk of High-Alert Drugs," all of the following can be classified as "high-alert" medications except:
A)insulin.
B)chemotherapy drugs.
C)anti-seizure medications.
D)opioids.
33
The use of colored wristbands on patients to alert practitioners about patient allergies, as pointed out in "Reduce the Risk of High-Alert Drugs," is a risky practice because:
A)patients may be allergic to more than one drug.
B)the meaning of specific colors is not standardized.
C)practitioners may not pay attention to allergy reactions from non-indicated medications.
D)practitioners may not always be able to clearly distinguish among the various colors.
34
Soft forcing functions in dispensing medications, as maintained in "Reduce the Risk of High-Alert Drugs," are just as effective as hard forcing functions and may be easier and more cost-effective to implement.
A)True
B)False
35
Administering vasoactive drugs is challenging, as reported in "Keeping Your Patient Hemo-Dynamically Stable," because:
A)they frequently interact with other medications.
B)slight miscalculations in dosing can render them ineffective.
C)they often require significant time to create an effect.
D)they often have undesirable and potentially dangerous secondary effects.
36
Medical professionals, as cautioned in "Keeping Your Patient Hemo-Dynamically Stable," must be particularly vigilant when administering vasoactive medications based on the patient's:
A)normal blood pressure.
B)weight.
C)nutritional status.
D)tolerance for discomfort.
37
According to "Keeping Your Patient Hemo-Dynamically Stable," it is very rare today for patients given vasoactive drugs to be transferred from intensive care to a regular medical/surgical unit.
A)True
B)False
38
The woman at the center of the lawsuit presented in "Medication-Monitoring Lawsuit: Case Study and Lessons Learned," was originally admitted to a hospital as a result of a:
A)cancer recurrence.
B)stroke.
C)heart attack.
D)diabetic coma.
39
Apart from her immediate medical condition, as explained in "Medication-Monitoring Lawsuit: Case Study and Lessons Learned," the patient additionally suffered from uncontrolled:
A)migraine headaches.
B)muscle cramps.
C)abdominal pain.
D)nosebleeds.
40
In spite of a note in her record stating that the patient should not be given anticoagulant medication, as described in "Medication-Monitoring Lawsuit: Case Study and Lessons Learned," she was prescribed heparin and, later, Coumadin.
A)True
B)False
41
Apart from patient distress, as reported in "Antiemetic Drugs," nausea and vomiting can lead to all of the following except:
A)prolonged hospital stays.
B)increased costs.
C)heightened risk of infection.
D)increased nursing time.
42
For a patient undergoing chemotherapy or radiation therapy, as put forth in "Antiemetic Drugs," nausea and vomiting can interrupt treatment due to:
A)patient fatigue.
B)emotional factors.
C)dehydration.
D)risk of internal bleeding.
43
Nausea, as noted in "Antiemetic Drugs," can be characterized as a subjective symptom, based on the patient's own report.
A)True
B)False
44
Acute pain, as maintained in "Assessment and Management of Patients with Wound-Related Pain," serves a useful purpose in warning healthcare professionals that:
A)all of the patient's needs have not yet been met.
B)deferring treatment might result in life-threatening consequences.
C)a wound has likely become infected.
D)recovery and healing are likely to become long-term processes.
45
Nociceptive pain, as explained in "Assessment and Management of Patients with Wound-Related Pain," is mediated by receptors that are located in all of the following except:
A)internal organs.
B)skin.
C)muscle.
D)bone.
46
The experience of chronic pain, as reported in "Assessment and Management of Patients with Wound-Related Pain," tends to decline with age.
A)True
B)False
47
Determining the cause of abdominal pain can be tricky and time-consuming, as explained in "Acute Abdomen," in part because:
A)much abdominal pain is psychosomatic.
B)of all sources of pain, abdominal pain is the most subjective.
C)symptoms are often intermittent.
D)the abdomen has many organs and structures.
48
The main causes of abdominal pain, as described in "Acute Abdomen," include all of the following except:
A)inflammation.
B)psychosomatic.
C)organ distension.
D)ischemia.
49
Abdominal pain, as noted in "Acute Abdomen," can be referred to many locations, including the shoulders, cardiac area, and low or mid back.
A)True
B)False
50
When no obvious source of pain can be found, as mentioned in "Pain Management: The Role of the Nurse," nurses are often tempted to:
A)ascribe the cause to mental distress.
B)label the patient as a complainer.
C)order a wide array of expensive tests.
D)turn the patient over to the doctor as soon as possible.
51
Children, as explained in "Pain Management: The Role of the Nurse," are often unable to express their pain accurately because it:
A)seems to have no specific location.
B)frightens them.
C)is unfamiliar.
D)may result in even more painful treatment.
52
Pain, as noted in "Pain Management: The Role of the Nurse," can be present in a number of normal bodily functions, such as childbirth.
A)True
B)False
53
Chest pain associated with anxiety, as stated in "Anxiety and Open Heart Surgery," is often characterized by all of the following except:
A)localized.
B)fleeting.
C)repetitive.
D)sharp.
54
Apart from anxiety, as explained in "Anxiety and Open Heart Surgery," shortness of breath can arise from:
A)gastrointestinal distress.
B)cardiac disease.
C)complications of diabetes.
D)migraine.
55
While anxiety in a clinical setting can be somewhat expected, as noted in "Anxiety and Open Heart Surgery," it almost never becomes a clinical issue.
A)True
B)False
56
In patients with COPD, as explained in "Respiratory Assessment in Adults," long-standing lung damage results in tolerance for:
A)higher levels of oxygen.
B)elevated levels of carbon dioxide.
C)lower concentrations of oxygen in the air.
D)higher levels of particulate matter in the air.
57
Chemoreceptors in the circulatory system and brain stem, as described in "Respiratory Assessment in Adults," sense the effectiveness of ventilation by monitoring the pH status of the:
A)arterial blood.
B)venous blood.
C)exhaled breath.
D)cerebrospinal fluid.
58
Whenever possible, as noted in "Respiratory Assessment in Adults," the same nurse should be involved in assessment and monitoring of a patient's respiratory status throughout a shift in order to detect subtle changes in respiratory function.
A)True
B)False
59
Medical Nutrition Therapy (MNT), as described in "Medical Nutrition Therapy: A Key to Diabetes Management and Prevention," has the greatest potential for impact when:
A)a pediatrician first notices that a child is overweight.
B)diabetes is first diagnosed.
C)a patient suffers his or her first diabetic crisis.
D)an overall plan of care for advanced diabetes is first established.
60
The onset of type 2 diabetes, as presented in "Medical Nutrition Therapy: A Key to Diabetes Management and Prevention," can most often be delayed or prevented with:
A)medication.
B)surgery.
C)lifestyle modification.
D)psychological counseling.
61
Recent studies, as cited in "Medical Nutrition Therapy: A Key to Diabetes Management and Prevention," suggest that doctors, even with diabetic or pre-diabetic patients, are uncomfortable advising patients about subjects such as weight loss and nutrition.
A)True
B)False
62
Shock, as explained in "Understanding Hypovolaemic, Cardiogenic and Septic Shock," is a potentially life-threatening condition characterized by:
A)uremic toxicity.
B)respiratory distress.
C)an imbalance between oxygen supply and demand.
D)rapidly falling body temperature.
63
The most common source of hypovolaemic shock, as noted in "Understanding Hypovolaemic, Cardiogenic and Septic Shock," is:
A)simple blood loss.
B)sustained vomiting.
C)overwhelming infection.
D)sustained fever.
64
Hypovolaemic shock is different from cardiogenic and septic shock, as pointed out in "Understanding Hypovolaemic, Cardiogenic and Septic Shock," in that it has many varied and diverse origins, as opposed to a few defined and specific causes.
A)True
B)False
65
As disclosed in "Tracheostomy: Facilitating Successful Discharge from Hospital to Home," the amount of care and support needed for an individual with a tracheostomy mainly depends upon:
A)the individual's socio-economic status.
B)the individual's physical and cognitive ability to adjust to life with a tracheostomy tube.
C)whether the individual is returning home or to a long-term care facility.
D)the type of tracheostomy performed.
66
As noted in "Tracheostomy: Facilitating Successful Discharge from Hospital to Home," tracheostomy tube blockage may be reduced by:
A)regular removal and cleaning of the inner cannula.
B)maintaining high-level sanitary conditions in the patient's environment.
C)requiring tracheostomy tube manufacturers to follow strict government safety standards.
D)using a double-lumen tube.
67
As discussed in "Tracheostomy: Facilitating Successful Discharge from Hospital to Home," with adequate training all tracheostomy tube replacements can be performed by community nursing staff.
A)True
B)False
68
As described in "Are You Ready to Care for a Patient with an Insulin Pump," an insulin pump is used by patients with:
A)type 1 diabetes only.
B)type 1 diabetes as well as patients with type 2 diabetes.
C)coronary artery disease.
D)pre-diabetes.
69
As told in "Are You Ready to Care for a Patient with an Insulin Pump," a sign that a patient is not managing the insulin pump properly is:
A)sudden weight gain.
B)sudden weight loss.
C)unstable blood glucose.
D)the presence of comorbidities such as coronary artery disease.
70
As noted in "Are You Ready to Care for a Patient with an Insulin Pump," an insulin pump normally administers insulin throughout the day.
A)True
B)False
71
As defined in "Head Attack," psychosomatics is the area of medicine that deals with:
A)sleep disorders.
B)drug interactions.
C)diseases that are at least partly psychological in nature.
D)secondary conditions that develop from other diseases.
72
As described in "Head Attack," the so-called "Type A" personality shows such characteristics as:
A)ambition, competitiveness, and impatience.
B)inhibition, shyness, and lack of confidence.
C)narcissism, carelessness, and lack of compassion.
D)introspection, intellectualism, and a preference for solitude.
73
According to "Head Attack," a strong adverse emotion such as anger doubles the risk of heart attack during the next couple of hours.
A)True
B)False
74
As characterized in "Pediatric Hospice: BUTTERFLIES," the Butterflies program:
A)provides pediatric hospice and palliative care.
B)advises hospitals about federal pediatric programs.
C)delivers pet-therapy programs to inner-city hospitals.
D)coordinates the activities of medical-school professors.
75
As brought out in "Doing More with Less," public-health nurses see themselves as:
A)equivalent to doctors in importance.
B)a last resort for their patients.
C)increasing in numbers and influence in coming years.
D)disappearing from the healthcare scene.
76
As given in "Doing More with Less," the public-health nursing shortage has been exacerbated by:
A)federal requirements that public-health nurses speak a foreign language.
B)the slow-down in the U.S. economy.
C)severe state budget cuts.
D)the low status of the nursing profession.
77
One impending crisis in public-health nursing, as claimed in "Doing More with Less," is that a large segment of public-health nurses will soon be eligible to retire, with few new candidates to replace them.
A)True
B)False
78
Before the mission to Southeast Asia, as recounted in "A New Way to Treat the World," the U.S. Navy ship Mercy had been:
A)stationed in the Middle East to care for soldiers wounded in Iraq.
B)a commercial vessel that was converted for hospital use.
C)stationed in San Diego harbor for 14 years.
D)in dry dock undergoing modifications.
79
As described in "A New Way to Treat the World," one doctor examined scores of children until he himself nearly collapsed from:
A)fatigue.
B)dehydration.
C)pneumonia.
D)tsunami lung.
80
The author of "A New Way to Treat the World" notes that he had never seen so much rampant and untreated disease as he saw while the Mercy was off the coast of Indonesia treating local patients.
A)True
B)False
81
The example, as given in "Emergency Preparedness," to illustrate the importance of having an Incident Command System is of a:
A)nuclear power plan meltdown.
B)chemical spill.
C)hurricane.
D)flu epidemic.
82
The author of "Emergency Preparedness" urges nurses to have a personal emergency plan that includes all of the following provisions except:
A)leaving a phone number with a neighbor.
B)arranging a meeting place with your family in advance.
C)a home generator for emergency power.
D)a supply of bottled water, canned food, candles, and a battery-operated radio.
83
As described in "Emergency Preparedness," by the year 2000, the Public Health system in the United States enjoyed an unprecedented level of funding and responsibility.
A)True
B)False
84
In the opinion of the nursing director of an assisted-living facility in Paramus, New Jersey, as cited in "Nursing Career to Consider: Assisted Living," these facilities are perfect settings for nurses to practice their skills in:
A)crisis care.
B)bedside nursing.
C)family communications.
D)assessment.
85
One of the primary duties of nurses in assisted-living facilities, as described in "Nursing Career to Consider: Assisted Living," involves:
A)managing long-term care.
B)assisting with medication issues.
C)basic life skills.
D)bereavement counseling.
86
One of the notable problems among the elderly that has been eliminated in assisted-living facilities, as mentioned in "Nursing Career to Consider: Assisted Living," are problems of self-medication, as alcohol is forbidden and medications are tracked by the nursing staff.
A)True
B)False
87
As outlined in "Fetal Nutrition and Adult Hypertension, Diabetes, Obesity, and Coronary Artery Disease," the Barker hypothesis:
A)has been disproved.
B)suggests a link between low birth weight and early adipose rebound in children.
C)proves that genetic adult obesity is determined at conception.
D)postulates that certain adult diseases are associated with in utero nutrition.
88
As noted in "Fetal Nutrition and Adult Hypertension, Diabetes, Obesity, and Coronary Artery Disease," another factor associated with coronary artery disease is:
A)a low maternal BMI.
B)a high maternal BMI.
C)the presence of maternal coronary artery disease.
D)the presence of paternal coronary artery disease.
89
As brought out in "Fetal Nutrition and Adult Hypertension, Diabetes, Obesity, and Coronary Artery Disease," fetal growth in middle to late gestation is associated with a risk of coronary artery disease.
A)True
B)False
90
As stated in "Nutrition through the Life-Span. Part 1: Preconception, Pregnancy and Infancy," enhanced fertility in women is associated with a:
A)healthy preconception nutritional status.
B)healthy nutritional status during pregnancy.
C)low maternal BMI.
D)high maternal BMI.
91
As noted in "Nutrition through the Life-Span. Part 1: Preconception, Pregnancy and Infancy," it has been postulated that DHA supplementation during pregnancy:
A)increases the risk of diabetes in later life.
B)increases fertility.
C)reduces the risk of coronary artery disease.
D)reduces the risk of pre-term pregnancy.
92
As given in "Nutrition through the Life-Span. Part 1: Preconception, Pregnancy and Infancy," malnutrition rates among persons aged 65 years or older are lower among people living in healthcare facilities than those living at home.
A)True
B)False
93
As described in "Nutrition in Palliative Care," palliative care is that which is provided:
A)in maternity wards to enhance the growth and well-being of newborn infants.
B)to enhance good nutrition among children.
C)to rehabilitate cancer patients for whom good nutrition has been a challenge.
D)at the end of life to enhance the quality of life and ease the suffering for the patient.
94
As presented in "Nutrition in Palliative Care," the presence of cancer presents a challenge to nutritional health because:
A)cancer patients require less food.
B)tumors cause metabolic changes that result in increased nutritional needs while at the same time rendering patients unable to meet those needs.
C)tumors cause metabolic changes that cause great weight loss.
D)most cancer patients are older adults who generally need less food; without adequate nutrition it is harder for these patients to combat the disease.
95
As defined in "Nutrition in Palliative Care," cachexia is a syndrome that causes rapid weight gain and interferes with the body's natural defenses against disease.
A)True
B)False
96
As related in "Nutrition in the Elderly: A Basic Standard of Care and Dignity for Older People," in primary care malnutrition is:
A)not considered an important risk to overall health.
B)under-diagnosed and under-treated.
C)over-diagnosed.
D)aggressively treated in elderly patients.
97
As recounted in "Nutrition in the Elderly: A Basic Standard of Care and Dignity for Older People," poor nutritional status can be affected by:
A)socio-economic status.
B)age.
C)gender.
D)mental illness.
98
As maintained in "Nutrition in the Elderly: A Basic Standard of Care and Dignity for Older People," those over the age of 85 constitute the fastest-growing segment of the population in the United Kingdom.
A)True
B)False
99
As cited in "Nutrition Management of Gastric Bypass in Patients with Chronic Kidney Disease," patients with chronic kidney disease may be denied transplant due to:
A)obesity, which decreases patient-survival rates.
B)the prohibitive cost, which is not covered by most insurance.
C)the inherent risk of the operation.
D)an inadequate supply of transplantable kidneys.
100
As noted in "Nutrition Management of Gastric Bypass in Patients with Chronic Kidney Disease," lightheadedness, sweating, nausea, weakness, and diarrhea after RYGPB are indicative of:
A)failure of the bypass procedure.
B)rejection of the donor kidney.
C)dumping syndrome.
D)obesity.
101
As maintained in "Nutrition Management of Gastric Bypass in Patients with Chronic Kidney Disease," most recent studies have advised against gastric bypass in these patients due to high mortality rates.
A)True
B)False
102
More men are finding it socially acceptable to become nurses, as explained in "Men in Nursing Today," as:
A)gender roles are changing.
B)nursing requires greater technical knowledge.
C)the number of specialties available continues to grow.
D)prominent men are opting for second careers in nursing.
103
The greatest concentration of male nurses in the United States today, as reported in "Men in Nursing Today," is in:
A)emergency care.
B)the military.
C)psychiatric hospitals.
D)geriatrics.
104
Even though nursing may be considered "women's work" today, as pointed out in "Men in Nursing Today," the first nurses were men.
A)True
B)False
105
As noted in "Men in Nursing: Addressing the Nursing Workforce Shortage and Our History," nursing was a primarily male-dominated profession until:
A)250 BC.
B)the early nineteenth century.
C)the early twentieth century.
D)the mid-twentieth century.
106
As described in "Men in Nursing: Addressing the Nursing Workforce Shortage and Our History," sections one through five of the ANA's Code of Ethics refers to standards regarding relations with:
A)colleagues.
B)patients.
C)superiors.
D)doctors.
107
As maintained in "Men in Nursing: Addressing the Nursing Workforce Shortage and Our History," the average male nurse is older than the average female nurse.
A)True
B)False
108
As noted in "The Male Community Nurse," Florence Nightingale was:
A)the driving force behind employing male nurses.
B)a woman who believed only females possessed the qualities necessary for nursing.
C)a woman who believed females did not possess the fortitude for nursing.
D)the first female nurse.
109
As brought out in "The Male Community Nurse," around the end of the nineteenth century male orderlies:
A)were nonexistent.
B)helped to care for the unmanageable and delirious.
C)performed nursing duties for male patients.
D)performed only janitorial duties.
110
As shown in "The Male Community Nurse," nursing was a male-dominated field until the nineteenth century.
A)True
B)False
111
The most immediate cause of the current nursing shortage, as maintained in "The State of the Profession: "Code White: Nurse Needed"," is the:
A)aging of the nursing staff and many retirements.
B)high level of job-related stress nurses endure.
C)effect of managed-care-driven budget cuts in hospitals.
D)high number of women entering medical school.
112
According to "The State of the Profession: "Code White: Nurse Needed"," there are currently fierce battles over mandatory nurse staffing ratios ongoing in California and:
A)Massachusetts.
B)South Carolina.
C)Florida.
D)Wisconsin.
113
A short sidebar to the "Code White: Nurse Needed" article, as reported in "The State of the Profession: "Code White: Nurse Needed"," accurately describes the use of foreign nurses in the United States and the devastating effect this migration is having on the health systems in developing countries.
A)True
B)False
114
As cited in "An Evaluation of Simulated Clinical Practice for Adult Branch Students," the main benefit of simulation training over real-world training is that:
A)students learn how to perform clinical procedures.
B)simulation training has proved more efficient.
C)students can practice clinical procedures without exposing patients to risk.
D)students prefer simulation training.
115
As related in "An Evaluation of Simulated Clinical Practice for Adult Branch Students," SimMan is:
A)a special full-size patient-simulator mannequin.
B)software used to simulate real-world patient situations.
C)the term used for an actor who pretends to be a patient with specific complaints.
D)special training materials used to test learners on clinical decision making.
116
As reported in "An Evaluation of Simulated Clinical Practice for Adult Branch Students," a drawback of simulation is that it does not allow for the teaching of nursing theory.
A)True
B)False
117
As mentioned in "Nursing Students' Self-Assessment of Their Simulation Experiences," the Lasater Clinical Judgment Rubric is:
A)a set of guidelines by which simulations are performed.
B)a simulation self-assessment tool.
C)an assessment tool devised for lecture-based learning.
D)an assessment tool for nursing instructors.
118
As discussed in "Nursing Students' Self-Assessment of Their Simulation Experiences," when students are able to set goals and monitor their progress through self-assessment, it increases their:
A)self-directedness.
B)self-confidence.
C)enjoyment of classes.
D)skills and abilities.
119
As claimed in "Nursing Students' Self-Assessment of Their Simulation Experiences," students have regularly asked for more personal evaluations following their performance on simulations.
A)True
B)False
120
As identified in "Mentoring as a Teaching-Learning Strategy in Nursing," mentoring is the:
A)teaching tool by which professionals in the field train nursing students.
B)practice of assigning veteran nurses to oversee the progress of newly graduated nurses.
C)teaching practice designed to support students in their clinical studies.
D)teaching practice focused on lecture-based theoretical training.
121
As described in "Mentoring as a Teaching-Learning Strategy in Nursing," the authors' study investigated the effectiveness of using a:
A)nurse educator graduate student to mentor an undergraduate nursing student.
B)professional nurse to mentor an undergraduate nursing student.
C)professional nurse to mentor a graduate nursing student.
D)BSN student to mentor an MSN student.
122
As characterized in "Mentoring as a Teaching-Learning Strategy in Nursing," the undergraduate students who participated in the authors' study were students with superior academic performance.
A)True
B)False
123
As identified in "NCLEX Fairness and Sensitivity Review," the NCLEX is:
A)a very sophisticated simulation examination.
B)an exam that tests the knowledge, skills, and abilities of entry- level nurses.
C)a yearly qualifying exam for nurses.
D)an exam given to second-year nursing students testing theoretical medical knowledge.
124
As described in "NCLEX Fairness and Sensitivity Review," the fairness review of the NCLEX is intended to ensure that:
A)each student has enough preparation to perform well on the exam.
B)university nursing departments meet uniform standards.
C)students at various testing facilities take the exam under similar and uniform conditions.
D)offensive and irrelevant material is removed from questions so that exam-takers are truly tested on their knowledge and skills.
125
As detailed in "NCLEX Fairness and Sensitivity Review," every test question on the NCLEX is reviewed for sensitivity and fairness.
A)True
B)False
126
As detailed in "How to Read and Really Use an Item Analysis," an item analysis is used to:
A)assess a student's understanding of academic material on the NCLEX.
B)ensure fairness and sensitivity of each item on the NCLEX.
C)statistically examine test questions and students' answers to assess question quality.
D)find measures of central tendency on each student's answers to test questions.
127
As noted in "How to Read and Really Use an Item Analysis," it is expected that the mean exam grades in upper-level nursing classes will be:
A)higher than that of lower-level nursing classes.
B)lower than that of lower-level nursing classes.
C)no different than that of lower-level nursing classes.
D)variable according to the students in that class.
128
As reported in "How to Read and Really Use an Item Analysis," statistical item analysis is a tool that can solely determine test quality.
A)True
B)False
129
The increase in nursing duties, as explained in "Nurses Step to the Front," can be traced to the 1960s and:
A)the women's movement.
B)greater access to advanced nursing degrees.
C)an increase in geriatric care.
D)a nationwide shortage of primary-care physicians.
130
Throughout the 1980s, as stated in "Nurses Step to the Front," patients began seeking out the advice of nurses because:
A)doctors began charging for routine calls.
B)they were more used to seeing practice staff members who were not doctors.
C)nurses seemed to have more time for them than their doctors.
D)nurses were more familiar with the contents of their medical charts.
131
Many nurses with advanced degrees, as pointed out in "Nurses Step to the Front," are now called on to perform tasks previously exclusive to medical students because the students' hours have been restricted.
A)True
B)False
132
The massive hospital restructuring that occurred in North America during the 1990s, as reported in "Mitigating the Impact of Hospital Restructuring on Nurses," had as its most significant effect:
A)the layoff of thousands of nurses.
B)increased educational requirements for nurses.
C)increased technology usage in hospitals.
D)conversions from non-profit to for-profit status for many hospitals.
133
The common view of emotional intelligence, as explained in "Mitigating the Impact of Hospital Restructuring on Nurses" is based on all of the following distinct domains except:
A)self-awareness.
B)self-management.
C)social awareness.
D)predicting behavior
134
In the study presented in "Mitigating the Impact of Hospital Restructuring on Nurses," gender was included as a control variable, although it was acknowledged that this can have a significant effect on perception of leadership.
A)True
B)False
135
The essential attributes of professional nursing practice, as set forth in "Predictors of Professional Nursing Practice Behaviors in Hospital Settings," include all of the following except:
A)nursing autonomy and control over the practice environment.
B)ongoing educational and training opportunities.
C)collaborative relationships with physicians at the nursing-unit level.
D)the ability of the nurse to establish and maintain therapeutic relationships with patients.
136
As explained in "Predictors of Professional Nursing Practice Behaviors in Hospital Settings," nurses are often unable to make use of their professional practice training because they are controlled by:
A)the immediate demands from patients.
B)short-staffing issues.
C)organizational and medical divisions of labor.
D)organizational fear of legal liability.
137
Research has demonstrated, as stated in "Predictors of Professional Nursing Practice Behaviors in Hospital Settings," that patient outcomes are improved when hospital organizations support professional-practice characteristics, rather than task-centered behaviors.
A)True
B)False
138
Before a job interview, as suggested in "The Winning Job Interview: Do Your Homework," candidates should learn all they can about the potential employer from all of the following sources except:
A)current or former employees.
B)industry rivals.
C)the employer's web site.
D)newspapers and business journals published in the employer's city or state.
139
If a job candidate is offered a beverage during an interview, as explained in "The Winning Job Interview: Do Your Homework," he or she should accept it as sipping on it will:
A)demonstrate good manners.
B)create a more friendly atmosphere.
C)allow the candidate to consider responses to questions.
D)give the candidate something to do with his or her hands.
140
If it is known that an interview will be conducted by a group of people, as noted in "The Winning Job Interview: Do Your Homework," it can be highly beneficial to ask a group of colleagues to role-play an interview situation for practice.
A)True
B)False
141
As given in "Meeting the Challenges of Stress in Healthcare," healthcare is a stressful profession that takes its toll on people at all of the following levels except the:
A)physical level.
B)financial level.
C)emotional level.
D)mental level.
142
As pointed out in "Meeting the Challenges of Stress in Healthcare," the key skill for a person in having a positive attitude is:
A)being able to balance work and home life.
B)financial independence.
C)talking sense to yourself.
D)success at work.
143
As claimed in "Meeting the Challenges of Stress in Healthcare," a person's attitude is always determined by his or her Pessimistic Voice.
A)True
B)False
144
As described in "Ethics and Advance Care Planning in a Culturally Diverse Society," an advance directive is used to:
A)plan one's funeral.
B)give instructions as to how to pay for future medical expenses.
C)consent to medical procedures.
D)communicate one's end-of-life care wishes.
145
As discussed in "Ethics and Advance Care Planning in a Culturally Diverse Society," as opposed to the majority population, when it comes to end-of-life planning people of minority cultural backgrounds are more likely to:
A)place more trust in the healthcare system.
B)prefer to follow a medical professional's advice rather than family wishes.
C)prefer more aggressive life-prolonging medical treatment.
D)have an advance directive.
146
As related in "Ethics and Advance Care Planning in a Culturally Diverse Society," most people in the United States have prepared an advance directive.
A)True
B)False
147
As related in "Jewish Laws, Customs, and Practice in Labor, Delivery, and Postpartum Care," the laws of niddah refer to:
A)dietary requirements and restrictions.
B)rules for observance of the Jewish Sabbath.
C)laws concerning the issue of intimacy between husband and wife.
D)rules and requirements concerning childbirth.
148
As discussed in "Jewish Laws, Customs, and Practice in Labor, Delivery, and Postpartum Care," in order to culturally assess a Jewish patient and her family, hospital staff should:
A)determine to which branch of Judaism the patient belongs.
B)ask initial questions about the family's religious practice.
C)ask initial questions plus follow-up clarification questions regarding the family's religious practice and restrictions.
D)speak to the family's rabbi to ascertain which religious customs will be observed.
149
As mentioned in "Jewish Laws, Customs, and Practice in Labor, Delivery, and Postpartum Care," religiously observant Jews are permitted to violate tenets of religious practice in health-emergency situations.
A)True
B)False
150
According to "Understanding Transcultural Nursing," research indicates that people from all of the following locations tend to need the least amount of personal space and feel comfortable standing close to one another except:
A)North America.
B)Japan.
C)Latin America.
D)the Middle East.
151
A strong gaze directly at a patient, as described in "Understanding Transcultural Nursing," may be interpreted as a sign of disrespect by members of all of the following cultures except:
A)Asian.
B)American Indian.
C)Eastern European.
D)Appalachian.
152
Although they must be aware of the potential for cultural conflicts, as pointed out in "Understanding Transcultural Nursing," nurses should also be cautious of assuming that all members of a particular culture will act and behave in the same way.
A)True
B)False





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