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Hole's Human Anatomy & Physiology, 9/e

David Shier, Washtenaw Community College
Ricki Lewis, The University at Albany
Jackie Butler, Grayson County Community College

Lymphatic System and Immunity

Multiple Choice Quiz

Please answer all questions


1	Which of the following contain lymph fluid?
		A)	systemic capillaries
		B)	pulmonary capillaries
		C)	lacteals
		D)	interstitial fluid


2	The _____ vessel drains the arm.
		A)	intercostal trunk
		B)	bronchomediastinal
		C)	subclavian trunk
		D)	jugular trunk


3	The lymphatic ducts will empty directly into the _____.
		A)	heart
		B)	subclavian veins
		C)	thoracic veins
		D)	brachiocephalic veins


4	What is one major force that causes interstitial fluid to enter lymphatic capillaries?
		A)	blood osmotic pressure
		B)	blood hydrostatic pressure
		C)	tissue osmotic pressure
		D)	tissue hydrostatic pressure


5	The main activity that causes fluid to enter the lymphatic vessels is _____.
		A)	muscle contraction
		B)	hydrostatic pressure
		C)	osmotic pressure
		D)	blood pressure


6	What would happen if the pectoral lymph nodes were removed during a surgical procedure?
		A)	cancer would develop in the area
		B)	infections would spread
		C)	the area would dehydrate
		D)	edema would develop distally


7	What is the main cause of edema following damage to an area of lymphatic vessels?
		A)	increase in tissue proteins
		B)	loss of tissue proteins
		C)	increase in blood osmotic pressure
		D)	increase in tissue osmotic pressure


8	Inflammation of a lymph node is called _____.
		A)	lymphangitis
		B)	tonsillitis
		C)	lymphadenitis
		D)	lymphedema


9	An efferent lymphatic vessel is carrying fluid _____.
		A)	away from the heart
		B)	towards the lymph node
		C)	out of an area
		D)	away from a node


10	Which of the following lymphatic areas are totally encapsulated with fibrous tissue?
		A)	palatine tonsil
		B)	Peyer's patches
		C)	cervical node
		D)	pharyngeal tonsil


11	Which of the following is not an area of lymph nodes?
		A)	abdominal cavity
		B)	cranial cavity
		C)	thoracic cavity
		D)	axillary region


12	Which of these nodes cannot be directly palpated?
		A)	inguinal
		B)	axillary
		C)	cubital
		D)	mesenteric


13	The breast tissue fluid will drain into the _____ nodes.
		A)	inguinal
		B)	pelvic
		C)	axillary
		D)	cervical


14	What is the largest lymphatic organ in a child?
		A)	spleen
		B)	adenoids
		C)	thymus
		D)	appendix


15	Where is the thymus gland located?
		A)	mediastinum
		B)	pleural cavity
		C)	abdominal cavity
		D)	superior to the pelvic nodes


16	The cells within the thymus gland probably originated from the _____.
		A)	spleen
		B)	liver
		C)	bone marrow
		D)	Peyer's patches


17	The red pulp of the spleen functions to _____.
		A)	produce erythrocytes
		B)	produce lymphocytes
		C)	phagocytize senescent cells
		D)	produce B-cells


18	The white pulp of the spleen functions to _____.
		A)	produce lymphocytes
		B)	remove foreign particles
		C)	store blood
		D)	phagocytize bacteria


19	An infection results when pathogens _____.
		A)	enter a tissue area
		B)	enter the blood
		C)	grow and multiply
		D)	grow and cause damage


20	The fact that humans usually cannot contract a monkey pneumonia is explained by the theory of _____.
		A)	mechanical barriers
		B)	enzyme action
		C)	interferon
		D)	species resistance


21	A nonspecific class of chemicals that can inhibit viruses and cancer cell growth is _____.
		A)	antibodies
		B)	peptides
		C)	interferon
		D)	antigens


22	Which of the following is not an enzyme capable of destroying foreign bacteria?
		A)	pepsin
		B)	fibrin
		C)	lysozyme
		D)	lipase


23	The following are symptoms of inflammation except which one?
		A)	edema
		B)	hyperemia
		C)	exudate
		D)	dehydration


24	Which inflammatory response provides the greatest protection from the spread of pathogens?
		A)	antibody production
		B)	increase in leukocytes
		C)	fibroblast activity
		D)	redness and edema


25	The major pathologic feature of inflammation is _____.
		A)	fibroblast activity
		B)	capillary permeability
		C)	increase in blood
		D)	loss of function


26	What is the main inflammatory blood cell?
		A)	monocyte
		B)	neutrophil
		C)	lymphocyte
		D)	eosinophil


27	Which of these does not belong with the others?
		A)	monocytes
		B)	neutrophils
		C)	macrophage
		D)	histiocytes


28	Which of the following is a specific immune defense?
		A)	antibody
		B)	interferon
		C)	phagocytosis
		D)	all of these


29	Thymus derived lymphocytes comprise about _____% of the circulating lymphocytes.
		A)	99
		B)	10
		C)	50
		D)	75


30	Where are the greatest number of B cells found?
		A)	lymph node
		B)	circulating blood
		C)	bone marrow
		D)	lymph vessel


31	Antigens are foreign substances recognized by _____.
		A)	macrophages
		B)	T cells
		C)	B cells
		D)	all of these


32	Which of the following could not be antigenic by themselves?
		A)	protein
		B)	polysaccharides
		C)	haptens
		D)	glycolipids


33	Cell-mediated immunity is mainly a function of _____.
		A)	B cells
		B)	T cells
		C)	macrophages
		D)	neutrophils


34	Which of the following activates the cytotoxic T cells?
		A)	interferon
		B)	interleukin-1
		C)	interleukin-2
		D)	interleukin-4


35	Which factor stimulates B cell proliferation?
		A)	interleukin-1
		B)	interleukin-2
		C)	gamma-interferon
		D)	CSF


36	Which factor activates phagocytosis by monocytes?
		A)	cytokine
		B)	gamma-interferon
		C)	interleukin-4
		D)	lymphokine


37	T cells may produce _____, which is lethal to the target cells invaded by a pathogen.
		A)	interleukin-2
		B)	perforin
		C)	interferon
		D)	interleukin-3


38	Humoral immunity is mediated by the _____.
		A)	monocytes
		B)	T cells
		C)	B cells
		D)	neutrophils


39	The specific source of the competent antibodies is the _____.
		A)	B cell
		B)	T cell
		C)	macrophage
		D)	plasma cell


40	Agammaglobinemia will seriously impair which ability?
		A)	CMI
		B)	T cell functions
		C)	antibody production
		D)	phagocytosis


41	The heavy chains of a immunoglobulin differ by having _____.
		A)	fewer lipids
		B)	more amino acids
		C)	more antigen sites
		D)	more sulfur atoms


42	Most of the circulating antibodies are derived from _____ class immunoglobulin.
		A)	A
		B)	E
		C)	G
		D)	D


43	The cross reaction that occurs between incompatible blood types is caused by _____ antibodies.
		A)	G
		B)	M
		C)	A
		D)	E


44	Which is the most common immunoglobulin for allergies?
		A)	IgA
		B)	IgE
		C)	IgD
		D)	IgG


45	Erythrocytes clump together because of a _____ process.
		A)	clotting
		B)	agglutination
		C)	complement
		D)	precipitin


46	The activities such as phagocytosis or chemotaxis of leukocytes is directly related to _____.
		A)	complement
		B)	neutralization
		C)	lysis phenomena
		D)	antibodies


47	The process which increases the chance of a neutrophil or monocyte engulfing an invader is _____.
		A)	phagocytosis
		B)	neutralization
		C)	complement fixation
		D)	opsonization


48	Tumors are most likely inactivated by _____ cells.
		A)	B
		B)	helper T
		C)	cytotoxic T
		D)	suppressor T


49	The increase in antibody levels in a second antigen exposure is due to the _____.
		A)	memory B cell
		B)	T cells
		C)	helper T cells
		D)	B clones


50	A vaccination is an example of _____ immunity.
		A)	naturally acquired active
		B)	artificially acquired active
		C)	artificially acquired passive
		D)	naturally acquired passive


51	Artificially acquired passive immunity could be the result of _____ injection.
		A)	antigen
		B)	toxoid
		C)	gamma globulin
		D)	cortisone


52	Naturally acquired passive immunity results from _____.
		A)	a bee sting
		B)	immunization
		C)	a flu shot
		D)	placental transfer


53	AIDS is caused by viruses that specifically invade _____.
		A)	the liver
		B)	B cells
		C)	T cells
		D)	neutrophils


54	Purified protein derivative is used to screen for _____.
		A)	AIDS
		B)	leukemia
		C)	tuberculosis
		D)	syphilis


55	Which of the following cause the symptoms of an immediate allergy reaction?
		A)	B cells
		B)	T cells
		C)	mast cells
		D)	neutrophils


56	Which of the following is an autoimmune disease of the thyroid gland?
		A)	Graves disease
		B)	SLE
		C)	scleroderma
		D)	rheumatoid arthritis

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