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Hole's Human Anatomy & Physiology, 9/e

David Shier, Washtenaw Community College
Ricki Lewis, The University at Albany
Jackie Butler, Grayson County Community College

Skeletal System

Multiple Choice Quiz

Please answer all questions


1	The bones of the upper arm are classified as _____ bones.
		A)	short
		B)	long
		C)	irregular
		D)	flat


2	The patella is classified as a/an _____ bone by some anatomists.
		A)	short
		B)	flat
		C)	sesamoid
		D)	irregular


3	The long shaft of a bone such as the femur is called its ______.
		A)	epiphysis
		B)	epiphyseal plate
		C)	periosteum
		D)	diaphysis


4	The _____ allows a bone to increase its diameter during periods of growth.
		A)	diaphysis
		B)	periosteum
		C)	endosteum
		D)	epiphysis


5	The articular ends of long bones are comprised of _____ tissue.
		A)	hyaline cartilage
		B)	fibrous
		C)	hematopoietic
		D)	bone


6	Spongy bone is also referred to as _____ bone.
		A)	cancellous
		B)	compact
		C)	cortical
		D)	fibrous


7	The area of a bone that produces most of the hematopoietic tissue is the _____.
		A)	periosteum
		B)	medullary cavity
		C)	process
		D)	endosteum


8	The center of each osteon contains the _____.
		A)	osteoblasts
		B)	Volkmann canal
		C)	Haversian canal
		D)	lacunae


9	Osteons have a _____, which provides a means of communication between them.
		A)	blood vessel
		B)	osteonic canal
		C)	Volkmann canal
		D)	canaliculi network


10	Which of these developed by intramembranous ossification?
		A)	femur
		B)	frontal bone
		C)	ulna
		D)	radius


11	During osteogenesis, which of the following cells would appear first?
		A)	fibroblast
		B)	osteocyte
		C)	osteoblast
		D)	osteoclast


12	Which of these is the most differentiated and oldest?
		A)	fibroblast
		B)	osteoblast
		C)	osteocyte
		D)	chondroblast


13	Which bone developed by endochondral ossification?
		A)	tibia
		B)	parietal
		C)	occipital
		D)	temporal


14	The _____ represents an area for growth in the length of a long bone.
		A)	diaphysis
		B)	epiphysis
		C)	epiphyseal disk
		D)	periosteum


15	The _____ contain enzymes capable of breaking down the calcium matrix of bone tissue.
		A)	osteoblasts
		B)	osteoclasts
		C)	fibroblasts
		D)	osteogenic cells


16	When does ossification begin in a developing fetus?
		A)	6th month
		B)	30th day
		C)	3rd month
		D)	4th month


17	When do secondary ossification centers appear in the epiphyses?
		A)	sixth month fetus
		B)	birth to five years
		C)	three year old
		D)	eighth fetal month


18	When do the bones of the sternum become completely ossified?
		A)	5 years
		B)	12 years
		C)	20 years
		D)	25 years


19	Most cases of bone cancer probably involve an increase in the activity of the _____ cells.
		A)	osteoblast
		B)	osteocyte
		C)	osteoclast
		D)	fibroblast


20	During remodeling, about _____% of bone calcium is exchanged each year.
		A)	1
		B)	4
		C)	10
		D)	0.5


21	The main factor which facilitates the movement of calcium through a cell membrane is _____.
		A)	growth hormone
		B)	the amount of calcium
		C)	osmotic pressure
		D)	vitamin D


22	Vitamin D deficiency in an adult causes the condition known as _____.
		A)	rickets
		B)	osteoporosis
		C)	osteomalacia
		D)	giantism


23	The most important vitamin required for proper bone resorption and modeling is _____.
		A)	A
		B)	B12
		C)	C
		D)	D


24	Vitamin _____ is required to produce the organic matrix that allows bones to be pliable or hold teeth in their sockets.
		A)	A
		B)	B
		C)	C
		D)	D


25	An excess of pituitary growth hormone will result in a condition of _____ if first noted in an adult.
		A)	dwarfism
		B)	acromegaly
		C)	giantism
		D)	osteoporosis


26	A deficiency of _____ hormone could result in reduced physical size as well as mental retardation.
		A)	growth
		B)	thyroid
		C)	pituitary
		D)	parathyroid


27	The _____ hormones have an effect of increasing bone and muscle mass, especially evident at puberty.
		A)	growth
		B)	thyroid
		C)	sex
		D)	adrenal


28	An increase in the mass of bone tissue caused by physical stress is termed bone _____.
		A)	hypertrophy
		B)	osteomalacia
		C)	atrophy
		D)	cancer


29	A _____ fracture occurs when the broken bone is exposed to the outside by an opening in the skin.
		A)	pathologic
		B)	simple
		C)	traumatic
		D)	compound


30	Which is the first to occur following a bone fracture?
		A)	migration of fibroblasts
		B)	formation of a hematoma
		C)	osteoblast proliferation
		D)	development of granulation tissue


31	The callus that forms around a bone fracture is comprised of _____ tissue.
		A)	bone
		B)	hyaline cartilage
		C)	fibrocartilage
		D)	granulation


32	What is the final stage of healing following a fracture?
		A)	osteoclast remodeling
		B)	formation of granulation tissue
		C)	formation of the callus
		D)	osteoblast deposition


33	A forceps is an example of a _____ lever arrangement.
		A)	first-class
		B)	second-class
		C)	third-class
		D)	fulcrum


34	When the arm is straightened at the elbow, the bones and muscles are acting as a _____ lever.
		A)	first-class
		B)	misaligned
		C)	second-class
		D)	third-class


35	The origin of blood cells is the _____.
		A)	bone marrow
		B)	yolk sac
		C)	spleen
		D)	liver


36	Which of the following produce erythrocytes in an adult?
		A)	spleen
		B)	liver
		C)	sternum
		D)	lymph nodes


37	The color of the red bone marrow is mainly the result of _____.
		A)	blood
		B)	hemoglobin
		C)	fat tissue
		D)	iron


38	Which type of bone is the primary source of red marrow in an adult?
		A)	irregular
		B)	long
		C)	short
		D)	flat


39	The most prevalent salt in bone matrix is _____.
		A)	calcium
		B)	hydroxyapatite
		C)	phosphate
		D)	sodium chloride


40	Which of the following require calcium for normal functioning the least?
		A)	bone matrix
		B)	nerve tissue
		C)	muscles
		D)	blood clotting


41	Which of the following is not a main factor in the development of osteoporosis?
		A)	diet deficient in calcium
		B)	lack of exercise
		C)	normal aging
		D)	hormone deficiencies


42	Bone salts comprise ____% of the bone by weight.
		A)	10
		B)	50
		C)	70
		D)	98


43	There are a total of _____ bones in the entire skeleton.
		A)	200
		B)	80
		C)	126
		D)	206


44	Which of the following is an axial bone?
		A)	femur
		B)	vertebra
		C)	ilium
		D)	tibia


45	Which of the following is an appendicular bone?
		A)	frontal
		B)	ethmoid
		C)	ulna
		D)	sacrum


46	Which bone has no direct bony articulation with the skeleton?
		A)	hyoid
		B)	manubrium
		C)	patella
		D)	phalange


47	The _____ bone supports the lower jaw structures such as the tongue.
		A)	mandible
		B)	temporal
		C)	maxilla
		D)	hyoid


48	The pectoral girdle is comprised of the clavicle and _____.
		A)	ribs
		B)	ulna
		C)	scapula
		D)	os coxa


49	The following are terms related to the pelvic girdle except which one?
		A)	os coxa
		B)	innominate
		C)	sacrum
		D)	ilium


50	Which of the following does not belong with the rest?
		A)	sacrum
		B)	coccyx
		C)	femur
		D)	os coxa


51	The term for finger bones is _____.
		A)	carpal
		B)	phalange
		C)	metacarpal
		D)	tarsal


52	How many phalanges are there in the body?
		A)	14
		B)	28
		C)	56
		D)	7


53	The coronal suture separates the _____ from parietal bones.
		A)	frontal
		B)	temporal
		C)	occipital
		D)	ethmoid


54	Which of the following is not a bone process?
		A)	trochanter
		B)	tubercle
		C)	tuberosity
		D)	fossa


55	What is the largest foramen in the body?
		A)	foramen magnum
		B)	optic foramen
		C)	obturator
		D)	mandibular


56	The cheekbone is called the _____ primarily.
		A)	mandible
		B)	zygomatic
		C)	maxilla
		D)	orbit


57	Which of the following is not a cranial bone?
		A)	frontal
		B)	lacrimal
		C)	sphenoid
		D)	ethmoid


58	Which of the following does not contain a sinus?
		A)	ethmoid
		B)	sphenoid
		C)	frontal
		D)	occipital


59	There are _____ bones that make up the cranium.
		A)	6
		B)	7
		C)	8
		D)	9


60	What is the significance of the supraorbital foramen?
		A)	attachment of muscles
		B)	passage of blood vessels
		C)	contain the eye
		D)	is a bone articulation


61	The _____ suture separates the occipital from parietal bones.
		A)	lambdoidal
		B)	coronal
		C)	sagittal
		D)	squamous


62	Which bone contains the ear structures?
		A)	parietal
		B)	maxillary
		C)	temporal
		D)	sphenoid


63	Which bone has the mandibular fossa?
		A)	mandible
		B)	maxilla
		C)	ethmoid
		D)	temporal


64	Which sinus, or air cell area, has the potential of having a very serious and painful inflammation that could spread to the brain?
		A)	sphenoid
		B)	mastoid
		C)	ethmoid
		D)	frontal


65	What is the location of the pituitary gland?
		A)	ethmoid sinuses
		B)	parietal bone
		C)	foramen magnum
		D)	sella turcica


66	Which bone has the crista galli projection?
		A)	ethmoid
		B)	sphenoid
		C)	frontal
		D)	maxilla


67	The nasal septum is comprised of the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and the _____.
		A)	maxilla
		B)	vomer
		C)	nasal bone
		D)	lacrimal bone


68	The hard palate is made of the palatine and _____ bones.
		A)	mandible
		B)	ethmoid
		C)	sphenoid
		D)	maxilla


69	The _____ is the area that houses the teeth.
		A)	mandibular fossa
		B)	alveolar process
		C)	maxillary fossa
		D)	mental fossa


70	The spinal nerves will exit from the _____ foramina.
		A)	spinal
		B)	intervertebral
		C)	transverse
		D)	vertebral


71	What is found only on the cervical vertebrae?
		A)	spinous process
		B)	transverse process
		C)	transverse foramen
		D)	lamina


72	The first vertebra is called the _____.
		A)	axis
		B)	atlas
		C)	cervical
		D)	dens


73	The _____ can be felt during a vaginal examination and be used for obstetric measurements.
		A)	coccyx
		B)	sacroiliac symphysis
		C)	sacral promontory
		D)	sacral hiatus


74	A lateral deviation of the alignment of the vertebral column is called a _____.
		A)	kyphosis
		B)	lordosis
		C)	scoliosis
		D)	slipped disk


75	Which is the largest of the ankle bones?
		A)	cuboid
		B)	navicular
		C)	calcaneus
		D)	lateral cuneiform

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