Multiple Choice Quiz 1


1	The average adult skeleton consists of ____ bones, however this number ____ with age.
	A)	206, increases
	B)	206, decreases
	C)	260, increases
	D)	260, decreases



2	Which of the following bone markings refers to a small, flat articular surface on a bone?
	A)	condyle
	B)	facet
	C)	head
	D)	process



3	Which of the following bone features is a smooth, rounded knob on a bone?
	A)	condyle
	B)	facet
	C)	crest
	D)	process


4	Which of the following bone extensions is massive and located on the femur?
	A)	trochanter
	B)	epicondyle
	C)	tubercle
	D)	tuberosity


5	What is the primary purpose of a bone process or projection?
	A)	add mass to the bone
	B)	connect one bone to another
	C)	points of attachment for ligaments or tendons
	D)	create a stress point on a bone



6	Of the following depressions in bone, which one is a socket like that for teeth?
	A)	alveolus
	B)	fossa
	C)	fovea
	D)	sulcus



7	Of the following holes in a bone, which one is a small pit located on the head of the femur?
	A)	alveolus
	B)	fossa
	C)	fovea
	D)	sulcus


8	Of the following passages or openings in bones, which one is a tunnel like that of the inner ear?
	A)	foramen
	B)	meatus
	C)	fissure
	D)	sulcus



9	Of the following passages or openings in bones, which one is a hole that allows for the passage of blood vessels and/or nerves?
	A)	foramen
	B)	meatus
	C)	fissure
	D)	sinus



10	Which of the following is a mucous membrane-lined air space within a bone?
	A)	meatus
	B)	sinus
	C)	facet
	D)	foramen


11	Which portion of the skeleton is the axial skeleton?
	A)	skull, vertebral column, hyoid bone and rib cage
	B)	arms, legs, and pelvic girdle
	C)	skull and pectoral girdle
	D)	sternum, rib cage, vertebral column, and pelvic girdle



12	Which bone(s) of the skull would be considered to be the most superior?
	A)	occipital
	B)	temporal
	C)	maxillary
	D)	parietal


13	Which of the following bones are joined by squamosal suture?
	A)	temporal and parietal
	B)	occipital and parietal
	C)	frontal and parietal
	D)	right and left parietal


14	Which of the following bones are joined by the lambdoidal suture?
	A)	temporal and parietal
	B)	occipital and parietal
	C)	frontal and parietal
	D)	right and left parietal


15	Which of the following bones are joined by the coronal suture?
	A)	temporal and parietal
	B)	occipital and parietal
	C)	frontal and parietal
	D)	right and left parietal


16	Which of the following bones are joined by the saggital suture?
	A)	temporal and parietal
	B)	occipital and parietal
	C)	frontal and parietal
	D)	right and left parietal


17	Of the bones of the head and neck, which one provides an attachment for the tongue and some neck muscles and does NOT directly articulate with another bone?
	A)	vomer
	B)	malleus
	C)	hyoid
	D)	stapes


18	Which of the following bones does the supraorbital foramen pass through?
	A)	frontal
	B)	parietal
	C)	occipital
	D)	temporal


19	The most superior portion of the ethmoid bones rise up into the cranium through which bone?
	A)	frontal
	B)	parietal
	C)	occipital
	D)	temporal


20	The perpendicular plate is part of which bone?
	A)	sphenoid
	B)	ethmoid
	C)	temporal
	D)	occipital


21	The sella turcica is part of which bone?
	A)	sphenoid
	B)	ethmoid
	C)	temporal
	D)	occipital


22	The mastoid process is part of which bone?
	A)	sphenoid
	B)	ethmoid
	C)	temporal
	D)	occipital


23	What anatomical structure lies within the sella turcica?
	A)	pituitary gland
	B)	pineal gland
	C)	nerves of the eye
	D)	hypothalamus


24	The crista galli is part of which bone?
	A)	sphenoid
	B)	ethmoid
	C)	temporal
	D)	occipital


25	The external auditory meatus passes through which bone?
	A)	sphenoid
	B)	ethmoid
	C)	temporal
	D)	occipital


26	The crista galli, perpendicular plate, and nasal concha are all part of which bone?
	A)	sphenoid
	B)	ethmoid
	C)	temporal
	D)	occipital


27	Which of the following bones has greater and lesser wings?
	A)	sphenoid
	B)	ethmoid
	C)	temporal
	D)	occipital


28	Which of the following bones has condyles that articulate with the vertebral column?
	A)	occipital
	B)	temporal
	C)	mandible
	D)	hyoid


29	Which bone(s) have/has the following foramina: ovale, rotundum, and spinosum?
	A)	sphenoid
	B)	ethmoid
	C)	temporal
	D)	occipital


30	The jugular foramen lies between two bones. Which of the following pairs is correct?
	A)	sphenoid and temporal
	B)	temporal and occipital
	C)	sphenoid and ethmoid
	D)	ethmoid and occipital


31	The foramen lacerum lies between two bones. Which of the following pairs is correct?
	A)	sphenoid and temporal
	B)	temporal and occipital
	C)	sphenoid and ethmoid
	D)	ethmoid and occipital


32	Which of the following bones has the hypoglossal canal?
	A)	frontal
	B)	occipital
	C)	temporal
	D)	maxillary


33	Which of the following bones has a cribiform plate?
	A)	ethmoid
	B)	occipital
	C)	temporal
	D)	maxillary


34	What bone lies as a connecting bridge between the maxilla and the temporal bone?
	A)	ethmoid
	B)	lacrimal
	C)	zygomatic
	D)	frontal


35	Of the following bones which one does NOT lie in the orbit?
	A)	parietal
	B)	frontal
	C)	maxilla
	D)	sphenoid



36	Which bone lies directly inferior to the perpendicular plate?
	A)	vomer
	B)	lacrimal
	C)	sphenoid
	D)	ethmoid


37	Which of the following bones of the orbit houses a foramen for a tear duct?
	A)	maxilla
	B)	lacrimal
	C)	ethmoid
	D)	sphenoid


38	The mandible articulates, via a highly moveable joint, with which of the following bones?
	A)	temporal
	B)	sphenoid
	C)	maxilla
	D)	parietal



39	Which of the following pairs of foramina are in the mandible?
	A)	lacerum and ovale
	B)	spinosum and rotundum
	C)	mental and mandibular
	D)	mandibular and lacerum.


40	The thickened bony ridge that houses the middle and inner ear is known as the
	A)	acoustic meatal canal
	B)	oral fissure
	C)	petrous portion
	D)	occipital protuberance


41	The thickened bony ridge that houses the middle and inner ear is part of which of the following bones?
	A)	sphenoid
	B)	temporal
	C)	ethmoid
	D)	occipital



42	The optic foramen passes through which of the following bones?
	A)	sphenoid
	B)	temporal
	C)	ethmoid
	D)	frontal


43	Which of the following pairs of bones form the roof of the mouth?
	A)	maxilla and mandible
	B)	zygomatic and vomer
	C)	palatine and maxilla
	D)	lacrimal and zygomatic


44	Which of the following sets is the correct listing of paranasal sinuses?
	A)	ethmoid, sphenoid, frontal, and maxillary
	B)	maxillary, frontal, temporal, and zygomatic
	C)	zygomatic, ethmoid, temporal, and sphenoid
	D)	frontal, parietal, maxillary, and mandibular


45	Which of the following bones houses the foramen magnum?
	A)	ethmoid
	B)	sphenoid
	C)	temporal
	D)	occipital


46	The superior most portion of the ethmoid bone rises up through which of the following bones?
	A)	sphenoid
	B)	frontal
	C)	temporal
	D)	palatine



47	The middle and superior nasal conchae are projections of which bone?
	A)	ethmoid
	B)	vomer
	C)	sphenoid
	D)	maxilla


48	The inferior most portion of the sphenoid bone is the
	A)	perpendicular plate
	B)	condyles
	C)	pterygoid processes
	D)	dorsum sellae


49	Which of the following bones has wings?
	A)	ethmoid
	B)	sphenoid
	C)	temporal
	D)	occipital


50	The nasal septum is made up of which of the following pairs of bones?
	A)	maxilla and lacrimal
	B)	ethmoid and vomer
	C)	vomer and maxilla
	D)	sphenoid and ethmoid


51	The ramus and the angle are parts of which of the following bones?
	A)	mandible
	B)	sphenoid
	C)	temporal
	D)	occipital


52	Which of the following groups correctly lists the auditory ossicles?
	A)	anvil, stapes, and hyoid
	B)	stapes, malleus, and incus
	C)	hyoid, hammer, and stirrup
	D)	lacrimal, auditory, and vestibular



53	Which two bones of the skull contribute to both the neurocranium and the viscerocranium?
	A)	sphenoid and vomer
	B)	frontal and vomer
	C)	ethmoid and sphenoid
	D)	ethmoid and frontal



54	Nuchal lines and the mastoid process both provide points of attachment for muscles of
	A)	facial expression
	B)	mastication
	C)	the neck
	D)	the throat



55	Temporal lines and the coronoid process provide points of attachment for muscles of
	A)	facial expression
	B)	mastication
	C)	the neck
	D)	the throat



56	What is the only bone of the skull that is freely movable relative to the rest of the skull bones?
	A)	ethmoid
	B)	mandible
	C)	maxilla
	D)	palatine



57	How many cervical vertebrae are there?
	A)	5
	B)	7
	C)	12
	D)	15


58	How many thoracic vertebrae are there?
	A)	5
	B)	7
	C)	12
	D)	15


59	How many lumbar vertebrae are there?
	A)	5
	B)	7
	C)	12
	D)	15


60	The first cervical vertebrae is known as the
	A)	atlas
	B)	axis
	C)	lamina
	D)	pedicle


61	The second cervical vertebrae is known as the
	A)	atlas
	B)	axis
	C)	lamina
	D)	pedicle


62	The opening in the middle of a vertebra for the spinal cord is known as the
	A)	intervertebral foramen
	B)	vertebral meatus
	C)	vertebral foramen
	D)	spinous process


63	Two of the bony ridges that surround the spinal cord are the
	A)	pedicle and lamina
	B)	nucleus pulposus and annularis
	C)	neural arch and spinous process
	D)	transverse process and articular facet


64	Which vertebra is immediately inferior to C-7?
	A)	C-8.
	B)	C-6
	C)	T-1
	D)	L-1


65	Which vertebra is immediately inferior to T-12?
	A)	C-7.
	B)	T-11
	C)	T-13
	D)	L-1


66	How many pairs of vertebrosternal ribs are there?
	A)	12
	B)	7
	C)	5
	D)	3


67	The sacrum is composed of how many fused bones?
	A)	3
	B)	5
	C)	7
	D)	12


68	The most inferior portion of the sternum is the
	A)	manubrium
	B)	body
	C)	xiphoid process
	D)	clavicular surface


69	The most superior portion of the sternum is the
	A)	manubrium
	B)	body
	C)	xiphoid process
	D)	clavicular surface


70	How many pairs of vertebral ribs are there?
	A)	12
	B)	5
	C)	3
	D)	2


71	How many pairs of vertebrochondral ribs are there?
	A)	3
	B)	5
	C)	7
	D)	12


72	The openings between vertebrae that allow for the spinal nerves to enter and exit are known as
	A)	intervertebral foramen
	B)	vertebral meatus
	C)	vertebral foramen
	D)	spinous process


73	Which of the following are the cartilages that attach the ribs to the sternum?
	A)	elastic cartilages
	B)	costal cartilages
	C)	thoracic cartilages
	D)	fibrous cartilages


74	The spinous processes of the first four sacral vertebrae partially fuse to form which structure?
	A)	medial sacral crest
	B)	sacral foramina
	C)	sacral hiatus
	D)	sacral promontory


75	The superior articular process of T-1 articulates with which process?
	A)	superior articular process of C-7
	B)	inferior articular process of C-7
	C)	inferior articular process of C-8
	D)	inferior articular process of T-2



76	Which two parts of a rib articulate with the vertebrae?
	A)	head and tubercle
	B)	head and body
	C)	body and tubercle
	D)	body and angle


77	A distinctive feature of the first cervical vertebrae is that it
	A)	does not have a spinous process
	B)	does not have a body
	C)	has a dens
	D)	does not have a vertebral foramen


78	A distinctive feature of the second cervical vertebrae is that it
	A)	does not have a spinous process
	B)	does not have a body
	C)	has a dens
	D)	does not have a vertebral foramen


79	A distinctive feature of all cervical vertebrae is that they
	A)	do not have a spinous process
	B)	are all lacking a body
	C)	all have facets for ribs
	D)	all have transverse foramina



80	A distinctive feature of all thoracic vertebrae is that they
	A)	do not have a spinous process
	B)	are all lacking a body
	C)	all have facets for ribs
	D)	all have transverse foramina



81	What is the most posterior portion of a vertebra?
	A)	transverse processes
	B)	body
	C)	lamina
	D)	spinous processes



82	Which of the following serve as points of articulation between adjacent vertebrae?
	A)	lamina
	B)	articular facets
	C)	pedicles
	D)	spinous processes



83	What attaches to spinous processes and transverse processes?
	A)	spinal nerves
	B)	muscles
	C)	spinal cord
	D)	other vertebrae



84	What passes through the foramen magnum?
	A)	all of the cranial nerves
	B)	the spinal cord
	C)	the spinal nerves
	D)	all of the above pass through



85	An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is known as
	A)	lordosis
	B)	kyphosis
	C)	scoliosis
	D)	laminosis


86	An abnormal curvature of the lumbar spine that results in an exaggeration of the convex curve of the lumbar region is known as
	A)	lordosis
	B)	kyphosis
	C)	scoliosis
	D)	laminosis



87	Which of the following is a surgical removal of the posterior arch of a vertebra?
	A)	epiphysiolysis
	B)	ostealgia
	C)	laminectomy
	D)	osteogenesis



88	What type of vertebrae does this figure represent?
	A)	cervical vertebrae
	B)	thoracic vertebrae
	C)	lumbar vertebrae
	D)	sacral vertebrae



89	What type of vertebrae does this figure represent?
	A)	cervical vertebrae
	B)	thoracic vertebrae
	C)	lumbar vertebrae
	D)	sacral vertebrae


90	Coronoid processes are found on which pair of bones?
	A)	temporal and humerus
	B)	mandible and ulna
	C)	sphenoid and clavicle
	D)	scapula and mandible



91	Which of the following bone extensions is a rough surface found on the tibia?
	A)	trochanter
	B)	epicondyle
	C)	tubercle
	D)	tuberosity


92	The pectoral girdle is composed of which of the following sets of bones?
	A)	pelvis and femur
	B)	scapula and humerus
	C)	scapula and clavicle
	D)	humerus, radius and ulna



93	The sternoclavicular joint is between which of the following pairs of bones?
	A)	sternum and clavicle
	B)	clavicle and scapula
	C)	scapula and humerus
	D)	clavicle and humerus



94	The head of the humerus articulates with the
	A)	coracoid process
	B)	glenoid cavity
	C)	infraspinous fossa
	D)	supraspinous fossa



95	The glenohumeral joint is between, which of the following pairs of bones
	A)	sternum and clavicle
	B)	clavicle and scapula
	C)	scapula and humerus
	D)	clavicle and humerus



96	The two bones most inferior to the humerus are the
	A)	clavicle and scapula
	B)	upper two ribs
	C)	tibia and fibula
	D)	radius and ulna


97	Medially the clavicle articulates with the
	A)	humerus
	B)	sternum
	C)	ribs
	D)	radius



98	Laterally the clavicle articulates with the
	A)	humerus
	B)	sternum
	C)	scapula
	D)	radius



99	The two processes on the superior - lateral portion of the scapula are the
	A)	glenoid and coronoid
	B)	coronoid and coracoid
	C)	coracoid and acromion
	D)	capitulum and trochlea


100	Which of the following bones is immediately proximal to the radius?
	A)	ulna
	B)	humerus
	C)	scapula
	D)	clavicle


101	How many carpal bones are there in one hand?
	A)	4
	B)	6
	C)	8
	D)	10


102	How many phalanges are there in one hand?
	A)	10
	B)	12
	C)	14
	D)	20


103	How many phalanges does one thumb have?
	A)	1
	B)	2
	C)	3
	D)	4


104	The carpal bones are arranged in which of the following patterns?
	A)	two rows of 4
	B)	four rows of 2
	C)	three rows of 4
	D)	four rows of 4


105	The end of the first finger (the one used for pointing) has a phalanx in it identified as which of the following?
	A)	first proximal phalanx
	B)	second proximal phalanx
	C)	first distal phalanx
	D)	second distal phalanx


106	On the "pinky", the last digit is referred to as the
	A)	5^th distal phalanx
	B)	5^th middle phalanx
	C)	4^th proximal phalanx
	D)	4^th middle phalanx


107	Styloid processes are found on which bones?
	A)	ethmoid and sphenoid
	B)	sphenoid, humerus, and femur
	C)	ethmoid, temporal, tibia, and fibula
	D)	temporal, radius, and ulna



108	What is the structure commonly referred to as the elbow?
	A)	capitulum of the humerus
	B)	coronoid process of the ulna
	C)	olecranon process of the humerus
	D)	trochlea of the ulna


109	Which of the following bones is NOT found in the proximal row of carpals?
	A)	scaphoid
	B)	hamate
	C)	lunate
	D)	triquetrum



110	Which of the following bones is NOT found in the distal row of carpals?
	A)	hamate
	B)	capitate
	C)	trapezoid
	D)	pisiform



111	The first groove beneath the head of the humerus is the
	A)	radial notch
	B)	anatomical head
	C)	surgical neck
	D)	deltoid tuberosity


112	Of the following bony parts, which one has the deltoid muscle attachment?
	A)	radial notch
	B)	anatomical head
	C)	surgical neck
	D)	deltoid tuberosity


113	Where is the olecranon fossa located?
	A)	posterior and distal portion of the humerus
	B)	anterior and proximal portion of the humerus
	C)	posterior and distal portion of the ulna
	D)	anterior and proximal portion of the radius


114	The structure that articulates with the olecranon fossa is the olecranon process of the
	A)	radius
	B)	ulna
	C)	humerus
	D)	scapula



115	The structure that articulates with the coronoid fossa of the humerus is the coronoid process of the
	A)	ulna
	B)	radius
	C)	scapula
	D)	clavicle


116	When resting our elbows upon the table, the bony projection on the back of our arms, that rests on the table, is the
	A)	olecranon process
	B)	olecranon fossa
	C)	coronoid process
	D)	coronoid fossa


117	The distal most bony projections of the radius and the ulna are the __________ processes.
	A)	coronoid
	B)	olecranon
	C)	glenoid
	D)	styloid


118	The ulna rotates on the humerus on which of the following anatomical parts?
	A)	capitulum
	B)	glenoid
	C)	trochlea
	D)	styloid



119	The head of the radius rotates on the humerus on which of the following anatomical parts?
	A)	capitulum
	B)	glenoid cavity
	C)	trochlea
	D)	styloid process



120	An accessory bone often found in the palm of the hand, is known as a(n) _______ bone.
	A)	accessory
	B)	sesamoid
	C)	articulate
	D)	wormian



121	The term "phalanges" is the plural of which of the following?
	A)	phalange
	B)	phalangie
	C)	phalanx
	D)	phalanxia



122	The structure that articulates with the glenoid cavity is the head of the
	A)	humerus
	B)	radius
	C)	femur
	D)	fibula



123	Which of the following rotates on the capitulum?
	A)	radius
	B)	ulna
	C)	humerus
	D)	scapula



124	The joint between a coxal bone and the sacrum is known as the
	A)	coxal joint
	B)	sacroiliac joint
	C)	iliac and ischium joint
	D)	pubic symphysis


125	The joint between the pubic bones is known as the
	A)	coxal joint
	B)	sacroiliac joint
	C)	iliac and ischium joint
	D)	symphysis pubic


126	Which of the following is a large sesamoid bone in the leg?
	A)	femur
	B)	patella
	C)	tibia
	D)	fibula



127	The fibula in relation to the tibia is
	A)	superior to the tibia
	B)	medial to the tibia
	C)	inferior to the tibia
	D)	lateral to the tibia


128	The upper (superior) most portion of the ilium, where we rest our hands on hips, is the
	A)	iliac crest
	B)	ischial cres
	C)	iliac fossa
	D)	anterior superior iliac spine


129	The visible anterior protrusions of the ilium are which of the following?
	A)	iliac crest
	B)	ischial cres
	C)	iliac fossa
	D)	anterior superior iliac spine


130	The head of the femur articulates in which of the following?
	A)	acetabulum
	B)	obturator
	C)	linea aspera
	D)	fovea centralis



131	Which of the following is the large opening in the bones between the ilium and ischium?
	A)	acetabulum
	B)	obturator
	C)	linea aspera
	D)	fovea centralis


132	In general, the female pelvis differs from the male pelvis by which of the following?
	A)	Females have a broader and more shallow pelvic outlet.
	B)	Females have a broader and taller pelvic outlet.
	C)	Females have a narrower and more shallow pelvic outlet.
	D)	Females have a narrower and taller pelvic outlet.



133	The tarsal region of the body is which of the following?
	A)	pelvic basin
	B)	region of the lower leg
	C)	hip to the ankle
	D)	ankle to the foot



134	Which of the following is a long line down the posterior side of the femur for attachment of muscles?
	A)	greater trochanter
	B)	obturator
	C)	linea aspera
	D)	fovea centralis



135	Which of the following is a large bony ridge along the side of the femur?
	A)	greater trochanter
	B)	obturator
	C)	lesser trochanter
	D)	fovea centralis


136	The most superior portion of the tibia is the
	A)	lateral condyle
	B)	patella
	C)	malleolus
	D)	intercondylar eminence


137	Which of the following is the large bump on the medial side of the ankle?
	A)	intercondylar eminence
	B)	head of the fibula
	C)	malleolus of the fibula
	D)	malleolus of the tibia


138	The distal most portion of the tibia lies on which of the following bones?
	A)	talus
	B)	calcaneus
	C)	cuboid
	D)	navicular



139	Of the following tarsal bones, which one is the most posterior?
	A)	talus
	B)	calcaneus
	C)	cuboid
	D)	navicular


140	Of the following tarsal bones, which one is the most distal and lateral?
	A)	talus
	B)	calcaneus
	C)	cuboid
	D)	navicular


141	There are three tarsal bones of the same name. Which of the following are the three?
	A)	cuboids
	B)	naviculars
	C)	metatarsals
	D)	cuneiforms



142	What bones are frequently beneath the distal end of the first metatarsal?
	A)	sesamoid
	B)	wormian
	C)	accessory
	D)	phalanges



143	How many tarsal bones are there in one foot?
	A)	4
	B)	6
	C)	7
	D)	10



144	How many phalanges are there in one foot?
	A)	10
	B)	12
	C)	14
	D)	20



145	How many phalanges does one big toe have?
	A)	1
	B)	2
	C)	3
	D)	4



146	How many total phalanges are there in the human body?
	A)	14
	B)	26
	C)	28
	D)	56



147	The last digit of the little toe is known as the
	A)	5^th proximal phalanx
	B)	5^th distal phalanx
	C)	4^th proximal phalanx
	D)	4^th middle phalanx


148	Of the following anatomical parts, the head of the _________articulates in the acetabulum?
	A)	humerus
	B)	radius
	C)	femur
	D)	fibula



149	Which structure(s) of the femur articulate(s) with the tibia?
	A)	lateral and medial condyles
	B)	lateral and medial epicondyles
	C)	greater trochanter
	D)	lesser trochanter



150	Which of the following projections of the femur does NOT provide for muscular attachment?
	A)	greater trochanter
	B)	lesser trochanter
	C)	medial condyle
	D)	lateral epicondyle



151	Which of the following does NOT articulate with the femur?
	A)	fibula
	B)	coxal bone
	C)	patella
	D)	tibia

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