Choose the best answer

1		With regard to their chromosomes, what is a major difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
			A)	Eukaryotes are diploid while prokaryotes are haploid.
			B)	Prokaryotes have DNA located in their cytoplasm, while all the DNA in eukaryotic cells is located inside a membrane bound nucleus.
			C)	Eukaryotes have linear chromosomes while most prokaryotes contain a single circular chromsome.
			D)	Prokaryotes compact their DNA to a high degree while eukaryotes maintain the chromosomes in an uncompacted state.
2		Which of the following would be a valuable application of a karyotype?
			A)	Microscopic analysis could allow identification of unusual cellular structures.
			B)	An individual could be matched to a forensic sample based on identical karyotypes.
			C)	A specific gene which causes a genetic disorder could be identified.
			D)	Genetic disorders caused by chromosomal rearrangements could be diagnosed.
			E)	All of the above.
3		A locus is:
			A)	One version of a gene.
			B)	The location of a gene along the chromosome.
			C)	The character the gene effects.
			D)	The mechanism of action of a gene.
4		Cellular division is important for which of the following processes?
			A)	Growth of a multicellular organism.
			B)	Growth of a unicellular organism.
			C)	Reproduction of a unicellular organism.
			D)	All of the above.
			E)	A and C only.
5		Which of the following is a correct description for mitosis?
			A)	Cell division of prokaryotic cells.
			B)	A sorting mechanism which accompanies cell division in eukaryotic cells.
			C)	A mechanism which reduces chromosome number from diploid to haploid during gamete formation.
			D)	The process whereby a eukaryotic cell is created from a prokaryote.
6		What is the major difference between sexual and asexual reproduction?
			A)	Sexual reproduction does not require cell division.
			B)	Asexual reproduction cannot occur in diploid species.
			C)	Asexual reproduction cannot occur in eukaryotes.
			D)	Asexual reproduction produces offspring identical to the parent.
7		What is a restriction point?
			A)	A point at which a cell is prevented from proceeding through the cell cycle.
			B)	A point at which a cell has become committed to proceeding through the cell cycle to cell division.
			C)	A point at which the cell density in a population has become too high and none of the cells are allowed to divide.
			D)	None of these.
8		What change occurs in chromosome structure between G1 and G2 phases of interphase?
			A)	By G2, they have become more tightly condensed.
			B)	They begin to be more actively transcribed in G2 than G1.
			C)	Chromosomes in G2 contain two linear pieces of DNA while those in G1 have only one.
			D)	Chromosomes in G2 have a centromere which was not present in G1.
9		Which of the following pairs of structures has the same amount of DNA?
			A)	An unreplicated chromosome and a chromatid.
			B)	A replicated chromosome and a sister chromatid.
			C)	A replicated chromosome and a bivalent.
			D)	An unreplicated chromosome and a bivalent.
			E)	All of the above are pairs that have equivalent amounts of DNA.
10		Which of the following events does not occur during prophase?
			A)	Condensation of chromosomes.
			B)	Formation of the mitotic spindle.
			C)	Duplication of the DNA.
			D)	Fragmentation of the nuclear membrane.
11		Where do the spindle fibers connect to the chromosomes?
			A)	To the centromere.
			B)	To the kinetochore.
			C)	To the centriole.
			D)	To the centrosomes.
12		What is the characteristic feature of metaphase?
			A)	The chromosomes are aligned in the middle of the cell.
			B)	The chromosomes have been duplicated and consist of sister chromatids.
			C)	Kinetochores are connected to kinetochore microtubules.
			D)	Sister chromatids have been separated.
13		Which event(s) create the most critical difference between mitosis and meiosis?
			A)	Separation of sister chromatids.
			B)	Formation of bivalents and crossing over.
			C)	Replication of chromosomes and connection to the spindle.
			D)	Formation of the spindle.
14		During which phase of meiosis are homologous chromosomes separated?
			A)	Metaphase I
			B)	Metaphase II
			C)	Anaphase I
			D)	Anaphase II
15		Which meiotic division more closely resembles mitosis?
			A)	Meiosis I
			B)	Meiosis II
			C)	Both resemble mitosis closely.
			D)	Both have significant differences from mitosis.
16		How are meiosis and gametogenesis linked in plants?
			A)	Meiosis produces haploid gametes directly.
			B)	Meiosis produces haploid gametes that are then modified by the sporophyte to produce functional gametes.
			C)	Meiosis produces a haploid cell that divides by mitosis to form a gametophyte, which then produces gametes by mitosis.
			D)	They are not linked in any way.
17		Which structure of the plant becomes the part of an apple that you eat?
			A)	The embryo sac.
			B)	The ovule.
			C)	The ovary.
			D)	The megaspore.
18		During which phase of meiosis does the segregation described by Mendel primarily occur?
			A)	Meiosis I
			B)	Meiosis II
			C)	Segregation occurs equally in meiosis I and meiosis II.
			D)	Segregation does not occur during meiosis.
19		How might segregation of genes affected by crossing over differ from that of most genes?
			A)	It occurs in meiosis I instead of meiosis II.
			B)	It occurs in meiosis II instead of meiosis I.
			C)	It occurs twice.
			D)	It does not occur at all.
20		Not considering crossing over, what gamete is not possible from the following diploid individual? Listed are alleles of five genes; members of homologues are separated by a comma. Chromosome 1: ABC , abc; Chromosome 2: Qr , qr.
			A)	ABCqr
			B)	abcqr
			C)	ABcqr
			D)	abcQr
21		Which of the following is not a mechanism for sex determination?
			A)	The Z-W system.
			B)	The X-O system.
			C)	The haplo-diploid system.
			D)	The parthenogenetic system.
22		How could you verify that a gene you suspect to be X linked is actually located on the X chromosome?
			A)	Set up reciprocal crosses.
			B)	Set up a two point test cross with another gene known to be located on the X.
			C)	Set up crosses between the F1 and both parental types.
			D)	A and B only.
			E)	None of the above.
23		You set up a cross between true breeding wild type male fruit flies and true breeding female flies with a yellow body color. You notice in the F1 generation that half the flies, specifically all the males, have yellow body color while the females are wild type (gray). Which of the following explanations is the most likely?
			A)	Some of your females had already mated with yellow males before you collected them.
			B)	Some of your parental flies must have had a new mutation in their germ cells.
			C)	The mutation which causes yellow body color is on the X chromosome.
			D)	The mutation which causes yellow body color is on the Y chromosome.
24		During which phase of meiosis does independent assortment occur?
			A)	Metaphase I
			B)	Anaphase I
			C)	Metaphase II
			D)	Anaphase II
25		You have a white eyed, male fruit fly with vestigial wings and a wild type female known to be heterozygous for both traits. You know that vestigial is located on an autosome. What is the probability that a mating between these two flies will generate a female offspring with vestigial wings and white eyes?
			A)	1/16
			B)	1/8
			C)	¼
			D)	½
26		Many of the important events for cell division occur during interphase.
			A)	True
			B)	False
27		In a cell with a diploid chromosome number (2n) of 12, there are 12 chromosomes per set.
			A)	True
			B)	False
28		At the end of mitosis, the cell has divided into two daughter cells.
			A)	True
			B)	False
29		The best way to identify an X-linked trait in fruit flies is that the trait affects one sex more often than the other.
			A)	True
			B)	False
30		Genes on the X or Y chromosomes in humans are not always inherited in a different pattern than are genes on the autosomes.
			A)	True
			B)	False