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Multiple Choice Quiz
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1
The cash account is affected by the
A)Revenue cycle.
B)Financing cycle.
C)Purchasing cycle.
D)All of the above.
2
Comparing the dates for a sample of cheques with the dates the cheques cleared the bank is used to test
A)Existence.
B)Cut-off.
C)Accuracy.
D)Authorization.
3
Tracing a sample of entries in the cash receipts journal to daily deposit slips tests which of the following assertions for cash?
A)Occurrence.
B)Completeness.
C)Valuation.
D)Cut-off.
4
The auditor is most concerned with which management assertion during the audit of cash
A)Valuation and Allocation.
B)Rights and Obligations.
C)Existence.
D)Presentation and Disclosure.
5
Kiting can best be defined as a situation in which
A)An entity employee is diverting deposits to his personal bank account.
B)The entity fails to complete bank reconciliations on a timely basis.
C)An employee fraudulently covers a cash shortage by transferring money from one bank account to another.
D)Entity cheques include unauthorized signatures.
6
On 31/12/13, Hoover Co. erroneously credited accounts payable (Dr. Cash; Cr. Accounts Payable) for a transfer of funds between two bank accounts that resulted in an overstatement of both cash and accounts payable at year-end. The cheque was not recorded until it cleared the bank on 2/1/14. Which of the following procedures would be least effective in detecting this misstatement?
A)Review of the 31/12/13 bank reconciliations for the 2 bank accounts.
B)Review of the schedule of interbank transfers.
C)Review of the accounts payable supporting documentation at 31/12/13.
D)Review of the December cheque register for both accounts.
7
Which of the following best explains why an auditor obtains a bank cut-off statement in connection with his/her examination of year-end cash balances?
A)It is the best available procedure to detect kiting.
B)Entities with poor liquidity may be likely to alter the year-end bank statement amounts.
C)It assists in verifying deposits in transit and outstanding cheques from the year-end bank reconciliation on a timely basis.
D)It is required per auditing standards if the auditor is unable to prepare a bank transfer schedule.
8
An auditor ordinarily sends a confirmation request to all banks with which the entity has done business during the year under audit, regardless of the year-end balance. One purpose of this procedure is to
A)Provide the data necessary to prepare a proof of cash.
B)Request that a cut-off bank statement and related cheques be sent to the auditor.
C)Detect kiting activities that may otherwise not be discovered.
D)Seek information about loans from the banks.
9
The primary evidence regarding year-end bank balances is documented in the
A)Bank confirmations.
B)Outstanding cheque listing.
C)Interbank transfer schedule.
D)Bank deposit lead schedule.
10
On receiving the cut-off bank statement, the auditor should vouch
A)Deposits in transit on the year-end bank reconciliation to deposits in the cash receipts journal.
B)Cheques dated before year-end listed as outstanding on the year-end bank reconciliation to the cut-off statement.
C)Deposits listed on the cut-off statement to deposits in the cash receipts journal.
D)Cheques dated after year-end to outstanding cheques listed on the year-end bank reconciliation and to the cut-off statement.
11
The following information was taken from the bank transfer schedule prepared for the audit of Salt Fork Co. Assume all cheques were actually dated and mailed on 30/12.
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Which cheque may be indicative of kiting?
A)Cheque # 1.
B)Cheque # 2.
C)Cheque # 3.
D)Cheque # 4.
12
Which of the following statements is false regarding a four-column bank reconciliation or ‘proof of cash’?
A)It is generally prepared by auditors in situations where internal controls in the cash area are considered very weak.
B)It can be effective in detecting kiting since cash receipts and disbursements are reconciled with those on the bank statement.
C)It can be effective to ensure that all cash disbursements recorded in the entity’s cash disbursements journal have cleared the entity’s bank account.
D)It is often used by the auditor to detect certain types of fraud.
13
The auditor typically uses the following procedures to detect fraud in the cash accounts:
A)Bank confirmations.
B)Bank transfer schedule.
C)Bank reconciliation procedures.
D)Inquiries of management.
14
Which of the following is true regarding petty cash?
A)The petty cash fund should be maintained by someone involved in other cash functions.
B)The petty cash fund is almost always the subject of heavy substantive testing.
C)Few entities maintain petty cash funds because of the risk of defalcation.
D)Auditors typically perform limited testing of the controls over the petty cash fund.
15
Which of the following controls would most effectively ensure that the proper custody of assets in the investing process is maintained?
A)Direct access to securities in the safe-deposit box is limited to one corporate officer.
B)Personnel who post investment transactions to the general ledger are not permitted to update the investment subsidiary ledger.
C)Purchase and sale of investments are executed on the specific authorization of the board of directors.
D)The recorded balances in the investment subsidiary ledger are periodically compared with the contents of the safe-deposit box by independent personnel.
16
Key segregations of duties for investments include all of the following except:
A)Whoever is responsible for investment activities should not also ensure that all dividend and interest income was received.
B)Whoever initiates the purchase of investments should not also grant final approval.
C)Whoever oversees security valuation should not also acquire securities.
D)Whoever maintains custody of the securities should not also account for the securities.
17
To establish the existence and ownership of an investment in common stock of a public company, an auditor ordinarily performs a security count or
A)Determines the market share at the balance sheet date using published quotations.
B)Corresponds with the investee regarding the number of shares owned.
C)Relies on the internal control structure if the auditor has tested the controls and has reasonable assurance they are operating as prescribed.
D)Confirms the number of shares owned with an independent registrar.
18
Which of the following is not a classification of investment securities according to international accounting standards?
A)Diversified.
B)Held-to-maturity.
C)Trading.
D)Available-for-sale.
19
An auditor testing long-term investments would ordinarily use substantive analytical procedures to ascertain the reasonableness of the
A)Existence of unrealized gains or losses in the portfolio.
B)Completeness of recorded investment income.
C)Classification between current and non-current portfolios.
D)Valuation of marketable equity securities.
20
To establish the existence and rights of a long-term investment in the common stock of a publicly traded company, an auditor ordinarily performs a security count or
A)Relies on the entity’s internal controls if the auditor has reasonable assurance that the control activities are being applied as prescribed.
B)Confirms the number of shares owned that are held by an independent custodian.
C)Determines the market price per share at the balance sheet date from published quotations.
D)Confirms the number of shares owned with the issuing company.
21
Which of the following is likely to be the most effective audit procedure for verifying dividends earned on investments in publicly traded equity securities?
A)Trace deposits of dividend payments to the cash receipts book.
B)Reconcile recorded earnings with the dividend earnings reported in the investment broker statement.
C)Compare the amounts received with prior-year dividends received.
D)Recompute selected extensions and footings of dividend schedules and compare totals to the general ledger.
22
An auditor would most likely verify the interest earned on bond investments by
A)Vouching the receipt and deposit of interest payments.
B)Confirming the bond interest rate with the issuer of the bonds.
C)Recomputing the interest earned on the basis of face amount, interest rate, and period held.
D)Testing the controls over cash receipts.
23
The audit firm’s valuation expert would likely be brought in to assist in the audit of fair value measurements at an entity when the following is present:
A)The entity is a new audit client.
B)Significant uncertainty exists in key inputs to the entity’s valuation models.
C)The entity has a financial instrument with a Level 2 input.
D)The entity owns a large and diverse portfolio of publicly traded stock.
24
‘Quoted prices from an active market’ is an example of what level of valuation criteria?
A)Level 1.
B)Level 3.
C)Lower level.
D)Basic level.







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