Multiple Choice Quiz 1


1	Blood helps to maintain homeostasis by
	A)	transporting materials between the tissue fluid and the external environment
	B)	ridding the body of wastes
	C)	breaking down nutrients
	D)	coordinating metabolic reactions



2	The average blood volume for an adult is about
	A)	45 liters
	B)	450 ml
	C)	5 gallons
	D)	5 liters



3	In which situation does the person described first have a higher blood volume?
	A)	a person with 30% body fat or a person with 10% body fat if they are the same size
	B)	a person weighing 200 lb. or a person weighing 100 lb., if both have the same % body fat
	C)	a dehydrated person or a person with normal body water content, assuming they have the same weight and % body fat
	D)	a female or a male, assuming same body weight and percent body fat



4	Each body function on the left is correctly matched with the corresponding function of the blood on the right EXCEPT
	A)	respiration - transports oxygen and carbon dioxide
	B)	immune defense - platelet factors initiate clotting
	C)	acid-base balance - buffers acids and bases
	D)	thermoregulation - allows heat to escape from the body at the skin



5	Which statement concerning blood viscosity is correct?
	A)	The viscosity of blood is 4.5 to 5.5 higher than the viscosity of water.
	B)	Blood viscosity is due to the presence of the plasma proteins and erythrocytes.
	C)	The higher the blood viscosity the harder the heart has to work to move blood through the vessels.
	D)	Anemia increases blood viscosity.



6	Low blood osmolarity
	A)	causes the blood to absorb excess tissue fluid as it passes through the capillaries
	B)	could lead to increased blood volume and increased blood pressure
	C)	allows too much fluid to remain in the tissues and leads to edema
	D)	could be caused by increased plasma protein or sodium levels



7	What percentage of body weight is blood?
	A)	91%
	B)	55%
	C)	8%
	D)	45%


8	Other than water, the most common component of plasma is
	A)	chloride
	B)	urea
	C)	protein
	D)	sodium


9	Which problem could NOT be caused by a deficiency of plasma proteins?
	A)	edema
	B)	reduced ability to transport oxygen
	C)	reduced ability to clot
	D)	reduced ability to transport molecules such as lipids



10	The antibodies that circulate in the plasma are made by
	A)	the liver, which makes all of the plasma proteins
	B)	the kidney, which monitors plasma composition
	C)	B lymphocytes, which are part of the immune system
	D)	the spleen, which uses them to tag red blood cells for destruction



11	If you have some blood from which the formed elements have been removed, how can you tell if it is plasma or serum?
	A)	plasma contains hemoglobin; serum does not
	B)	serum is yellow; plasma has no color
	C)	serum contains antibodies; plasma does not
	D)	plasma contains clotting proteins; serum does not



12	Blood colloid osmotic pressure
	A)	is the component of total blood osmotic pressure due to the presence of proteins in the plasma
	B)	would increase if blood sodium levels increase
	C)	would increase if the number of RBCs increases
	D)	would increase in a person who has liver damage



13	In which choice are the major groups of plasma proteins listed in order from highest to lowest percent?
	A)	fibrinogen, globulins, albumins
	B)	globulins, fibrinogen, albumins
	C)	albumins, globulins, fibrinogen
	D)	albumins, fibrinogen, globulins


14	In which choice is the plasma protein correctly matched with one of its functions?
	A)	albumin - antibodies involved in immune response
	B)	fibrinogen - attacks and destroys pathogens
	C)	globulins - transport minerals, lipids, hormones and vitamins
	D)	globulins - colloid osmotic pressure



15	The benefit of the biconcave shape of red blood cells is that it
	A)	decreases the distance between the cell membrane and hemoglobin molecules, facilitating oxygen uptake
	B)	allows the cells to hold more hemoglobin
	C)	gives more room for the nucleus and organelles
	D)	keeps them from leaking out through the walls of capillaries



16	Blood cells all develop from a common stem cell in bone marrow, but early in development they split into separate lineages. Which three of these cells develop from the myeloblast lineage?
	A)	basophil, eosinophil, neutrophil
	B)	lymphocyte, monocyte, erythrocyte
	C)	thrombocyte, erythrocyte, lymphocyte
	D)	monocyte, erythrocyte, neutrophil



17	Blood test results for an adult male are returned and the total red blood cell count is 2,500,000 cells per mm³. This person
	A)	has a normal total red blood cell count
	B)	has an abnormally low total red blood cell count
	C)	has an abnormally high total red blood cell count
	D)	shows that he has been exercising more than usual or has spent some time at high altitudes



18	As red blood cells get older, they
	A)	are less likely to become damaged
	B)	become more fragile
	C)	are less likely to rupture
	D)	are less likely to be phagocytized in the spleen or liver



19	Damaged red blood cells are phagocytized by macrophages in the spleen or liver and their components are recycled, EXCEPT for the
	A)	iron atom from the heme group, which is excreted in bile
	B)	globin peptide chains, which are sent to the kidneys for excretion
	C)	globin peptide chains, which are converted into bilirubin
	D)	heme group (minus the iron atom), which is converted into a green pigment called biliverdin



20	What would you suspect to find if someone has high blood erythropoietin levels?
	A)	blood oxygen deficiency
	B)	high blood oxygen levels
	C)	a high red blood cell count
	D)	a high hemoglobin level



21	Which hormone stimulates red blood cell formation?
	A)	thrombin
	B)	transferrin
	C)	bilirubin
	D)	erythropoietin


22	Which condition would stimulate erythropoietin secretion?
	A)	high red blood cell count
	B)	low blood oxygen level
	C)	high hemoglobin levels
	D)	increased blood flow through kidneys



23	The lower the total amount of iron stored in the body,
	A)	the higher the rate of red blood cell formation.
	B)	the higher the absorption of ingested iron in the intestine.
	C)	the lower the level of transferrin in the blood.
	D)	the higher the level of ferritin in the liver.



24	Which blood component is NOT correctly matched with its function?
	A)	erythrocytes - transport oxygen
	B)	leukocytes - protect against disease
	C)	platelets - phagocytize bacteria
	D)	plasma proteins - maintain blood osmotic pressure; involved in clotting



25	In which choice are the formed elements arranged in order of increasing size?
	A)	red blood cell, neutrophil, platelet
	B)	platelet, red blood cell, neutrophil
	C)	neutrophil, platelet, red blood cell
	D)	platelet, neutrophil, red blood cell



26	Which cell is NOT classified as a granulocyte?
	A)	basophil
	B)	eosinophil
	C)	lymphocyte
	D)	neutrophil



27	In adults, red blood cells are made in one place, spend most of their lifespan in another, and most are finally destroyed in yet another place. Which choice lists these locations in chronological order?
	A)	bone marrow; blood vessels; spleen
	B)	bone marrow; spleen; blood vessels
	C)	spleen; blood vessels; spleen
	D)	blood vessels; spleen; bone marrow



28	Which leukocyte is NOT correctly matched with its description?
	A)	eosinophil - bilobed nucleus, deep red granules
	B)	lymphocyte - smallest leukocytes, round nucleus, thin rim of cytoplasm
	C)	neutrophil - lobed nucleus with two to five segments, light purple granules
	D)	basophil - typical kidney-shaped nucleus, largest white blood cell


29	Which type of leukocyte is correctly matched with its function?
	A)	basophils - release histamine in areas of damaged tissue
	B)	neutrophils - leave the blood vessels and become macrophages
	C)	lymphocytes - phagocytize bacteria
	D)	neutrophils - defend against parasitic worm infections


30	Which is NOT correct about RBC recycling?
	A)	amino acids can be recycled into new proteins
	B)	the entire heme molecule is eliminated by the liver
	C)	iron is removed before heme is converted to bilirubin
	D)	liver dysfunction can cause accumulation of bilirubin in the body



31	The carrier protein that transports absorbed iron through the blood is
	A)	thrombopoietin
	B)	hemoglobin
	C)	erythropoietin
	D)	transferrin



32	Joe had to have both of his kidneys removed and is now kept alive only by dialysis machines that remove waste molecules from his blood and adjust electrolyte levels. Because Joe has no remaining kidney tissue, he may also need
	A)	clotting proteins
	B)	vitamin B₁₂ to stimulate RBC production
	C)	erythropoietin to stimulate RBC production
	D)	a bone marrow transplant



33	Which of these blood components do NOT have nuclei?
	A)	neutrophils
	B)	erythrocytes
	C)	lymphocytes
	D)	monocytes


34	The term "hematopoiesis" refers to
	A)	the mechanisms that prevent blood loss
	B)	a disease in which there is insufficient blood cell production
	C)	the rupture of red blood cells
	D)	the process of blood cell formation



35	Without the RBC enzyme carbonic anhydrase
	A)	the blood would not be able to carry oxygen
	B)	the blood would not be able to coagulate
	C)	the blood would not be able to convert carbon dioxide into bicarbonate
	D)	we would not be able to remove and break down heme



36	What is the role of the nitric oxide (NO) carried by hemoglobin?
	A)	NO stimulates the formation of more red blood cells
	B)	NO relaxes blood vessels and decreases blood pressure
	C)	NO helps the hemoglobin bind to oxygen
	D)	NO prevents the hemoglobin from picking up carbon monoxide



37	Which process attracts leukocytes to damaged tissue?
	A)	chemotaxis
	B)	hemostasis
	C)	hemopoiesis
	D)	agglutination



38	If someone has no megakaryocytes, he/she will
	A)	not be able to make white blood cells
	B)	not be able to make red blood cells
	C)	have a reduced ability to prevent blood loss
	D)	not be able to phagocytize bacteria



39	An overdose of erythropoietin would cause
	A)	anemia
	B)	polycythemia
	C)	low blood viscosity
	D)	low blood pressure



40	All of these describe normal erythrocytes EXCEPT
	A)	biconcave disk
	B)	contain no nucleus
	C)	contain mitochondria
	D)	contain hemoglobin



41	Which choice represents an abnormal value?
	A)	total RBC count - 5.1 million / mL
	B)	total WBC count - 1500 / mL
	C)	total platelet count - 250,000 / mL
	D)	hemoglobin - 15 g / dL



42	Immature erythrocytes that contain a network of endoplasmic reticulum and normally make up about 1 - 3% of circulating blood are called
	A)	granulocytes
	B)	basophilic erythroblasts
	C)	proerythroblasts
	D)	reticulocytes



43	Several proteins are involved in the absorption, transport and storage of iron. Each protein is correctly matched with its function EXCEPT
	A)	apoferritin - a storage protein in the liver
	B)	ferritin - an iron-containing protein found in the erythrocytes
	C)	gastroferritin - binds to iron in the stomach and transports it to the small intestine
	D)	transferrin - transports iron through the blood



44	Which statement is correct?
	A)	Thrombopoiesis occurs mainly in the lungs.
	B)	Thrombopoietin is a hormone that stimulates platelet production.
	C)	Platelets have a large nucleus containing many sets of chromosomes.
	D)	Megakaryocytes divide by mitosis to produce platelets.



45	In which choice are the leukocytes correctly arranged in order from most common to least common?
	A)	monocytes, lymphocytes, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils
	B)	lymphocytes, neutrophils, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils
	C)	neutrophils, monocytes, lymphocytes, basophils, eosinophils
	D)	neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils



46	Once released from the bone marrow into the circulation, the average life span of a red blood cell is about
	A)	72 hours
	B)	one week
	C)	4 months
	D)	2 years



47	One molecule of hemoglobin
	A)	contains two alpha globin proteins and two beta globin proteins.
	B)	contains one heme group.
	C)	contains 2 atoms of iron.
	D)	can carry 12 molecules of oxygen.



48	In a red blood cell, carbon dioxide is attached to the
	A)	iron of the Hemoglobin
	B)	amino acids of the Globin
	C)	plasma membrane
	D)	heme of the hemoglobin



49	Erythropoietin is produced by
	A)	red blood cells
	B)	red bone marrow
	C)	liver
	D)	kidneys



50	Red blood cells do not use any of the oxygen that they carry, because
	A)	oxygen is bound to heme and cannot be removed
	B)	they lack miochondria to use oxygen for aerobic respiration
	C)	they do not need ATP
	D)	they use carbon dioxide instead of oxygen for energy production



51	In which choice are the proteins listed in the order in which they are activated?
	A)	prothrombin activator, thrombin, fibrin
	B)	fibrin, thrombin, prothrombin activator
	C)	thrombin, fibrin, prothrombin activator
	D)	thrombin, prothrombin activator, fibrin



52	Platelet plug formation is initiated when platelets come into contact with
	A)	undamaged endothelial cells
	B)	fibrinogen
	C)	collagen fibers in the connective tissue beneath the endothelium
	D)	antithrombin


53	Which statement about hemostasis is NOT correct?
	A)	Positive feedback rapidly increases the amount of activated clotting factors.
	B)	The intrinsic mechanism occurs in response to tissue damage.
	C)	During clotting, blood cells and platelets are trapped in a mesh of protein fibers.
	D)	The extrinsic mechanism is initiated by tissue factor (thromboplastin), released by damaged tissues.



54	Repair of damaged blood vessel walls is stimulated by
	A)	tissue thromboplastin
	B)	platelet-derived growth factor
	C)	pasminogen
	D)	serum


55	After preliminary testing, a man who had had a stroke was given tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) at the hospital. The reason for this treatment is that tPA
	A)	activates an enzyme that dissolves clots
	B)	prevents the formation of clots by removing calcium from the blood
	C)	prevents the formation of thrombin
	D)	initiates repair in damaged blood vessels



56	A blood clot that forms in an undamaged vessel is called a(n) _______, and if it breaks loose and travels through the bloodstream it is called a(n) __________.
	A)	hematoma; thrombosis
	B)	thrombus; hematoma
	C)	thrombus; embolus
	D)	embolus; thrombus



57	A pulmonary embolism is a blood clot that blocks blood flow in a vessel
	A)	supplying part of a lung
	B)	in the heart
	C)	in the brain
	D)	in the kidney



58	The production of prostacyclin by endothelial cells
	A)	means that blood clots do not normally form in healthy blood vessels
	B)	attracts platelets
	C)	exposes the collagen below the endothelial cells
	D)	reduces the synthesis of clotting proteins by the liver



59	Which substance is NOT correctly matched to its function?
	A)	antithrombin - inactivates thrombin
	B)	prostacyclin - prevents platelet adhesion
	C)	heparin - interferes with the formation of prothrombin activator
	D)	plasminogen - initiates extrinsic mechanism



60	Which of these statements is correct?
	A)	Thrombin catalyzes the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
	B)	Ca++ is not required for coagulation.
	C)	Tissue factor is always required for activation of factor X.
	D)	The extrinsic mechanism causes coagulation when there is no tissue damage.



61	Which molecule is a potent stimulator of coagulation?
	A)	prostacyclin
	B)	tissue factor or thromboplastin
	C)	plasmin
	D)	tissue plasminogen activator



62	During platelet plug formation, platelets release these substances, which cause more platelets to adhere to the plug.
	A)	prostacyclin and NO
	B)	erythropoietin and bilirubin
	C)	heparin and plasmin
	D)	ADP and thromboxanes


63	What happens when fibrinogen is converted to fibrin?
	A)	a transfusion reaction
	B)	iron is stored in the liver
	C)	a clot is formed
	D)	a platelet plug is formed


64	Vascular spasm
	A)	closes off small blood vessels when they are damaged, mainly in response to chemicals released from the damaged cells
	B)	occurs in blood vessels when the pressure is too high
	C)	occurs when blood oxygen levels are low
	D)	occurs when a blood vessel dilates in response to pain



65	Which of these blood components is NOT involved in clotting?
	A)	platelets
	B)	fibrinogen
	C)	calcium
	D)	potassium



66	Each of these prevents unwanted coagulation EXCEPT
	A)	tissue thromboplastin
	B)	antithrombin
	C)	heparin
	D)	prostacyclin



67	Removal of this substance from blood would prevent clotting.
	A)	transferrin
	B)	iron
	C)	antibodies
	D)	calcium



68	A patient lacks fat absorbing mechanism in the intestines. This person is most likely going to suffer severe bleeding problems because
	A)	fat droplets help to keep platelets together during clotting
	B)	vitamin K will not be absorbed and this will lead to deficiency of clotting factors
	C)	fatty acids are essential for the synthesis of tissue factors
	D)	vitamin C will not be absorbed, which is essential for synthesis of clotting factors.



69	A person's blood type is determined by
	A)	mixing his blood with the blood of another person of known blood type—if there is no reaction they are the same type
	B)	looking at red blood cells under a microscope to see what kind of antigens are on their membranes
	C)	checking to see which plasma antibodies a person has—he won't have antibodies against his own blood type
	D)	mixing the blood with different antibodies to see which ones cause the red blood cells to agglutinate



70	What kind of risk exists when a woman who is Rh+ carries an Rh- fetus?
	A)	There is usually no risk during the first pregnancy, but it can harm the fetus during a subsequent pregnancy if the mother is not treated
	B)	It always poses a serious risk to the fetus, even in the first pregnancy
	C)	Only in rare cases is there a risk to the fetus during the first pregnancy
	D)	There is never a risk to the fetus in any pregnancy



71	Antibodies to blood type A or B antigens are
	A)	formed when antigen A is present on the red blood cell membranes
	B)	formed when antigen A is absent from the red blood cell membranes
	C)	formed during fetal development
	D)	small enough to cross the placenta



72	A blood transfusion reaction will
	A)	occur when plasma antibodies contact red blood cells carrying the antigen with which they react
	B)	only occur if both red blood cells and plasma are transfused
	C)	always occur if someone is given type O blood
	D)	not cause any damage to the red blood cells



73	A person who is Rh negative might form anti-Rh antibodies if she
	A)	receives a transfusion of Rh positive blood
	B)	receives a transfusion of Rh negative blood
	C)	becomes pregnant with a fetus that is Rh negative
	D)	is given a shot of the drug RhoGAM



74	Erythroblastosis fetalis (hemolytic disease of the newborn) occurs when
	A)	a premature Rh positive baby is given a transfusion of Rh negative blood
	B)	anti-Rh antibodies from the maternal circulation cross the placenta and agglutinate the fetal red blood cells
	C)	the fetus cannot make normal red blood cells
	D)	the fetus' white blood cells are destroyed by antibodies from the maternal circulation

Agglutination, which occurs during transfusion reactions, is caused by binding between

hemoglobin and the kidney tubule cells

clotting proteins and the enzymes that activate them

platelets and endothelial cells

RBC membrane antigens and plasma antibodies

A person with type O+ blood would

make anti-Rh antibodies if exposed to the Rh antigen

have neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies in his plasma

have Rh but not A or B antigens on his RBCs

be able to receive type A+, B+, or AB+ in a transfusion if necessary

Blood types are determined

genetically by glycoproteins and glycolipids on the RBC membrane

genetically by antibodies in the plasma

by the different forms of hemoglobin present in the RBCs

by exposure to intestinal bacteria during infancy

Which of the following is true for an individual's with type A blood?

The person can donate blood to type O

The individuals plasma contains anti-A antibodies

The individual can donate blood to type AB

The individual must be Rh+

Which of the following is true for an individual with anti-A antibodies in the plasma?

The individual is blood type A

The individual is blood type B

The individual is blood type AB

The individual can be either blood type B or AB

Type O is considered to be universal

donor because it has neither anti-A antibodies nor anti-B antibodies circulating in the plasma

donor because it has neither antigen A nor antigen B on its RBCs

recipient because it has neither anti-A antibodies nor anti-B antibodies circulating in the plasma

recipient because it has neither antigen A nor antigen B on its RBCs

A dietary deficiency of iron could cause

reduced ability of the blood to coagulate

a low platelet count

insufficient white blood cell production

a low red blood cell count

For a person whose hematocrit is 45%,

white blood cell volume would be 45% of total blood volume

red blood cell volume would be 55% of total blood volume

plasma volume would be 45% of total blood volume

plasma volume would be 55% of total blood volume

For a person whose hematocrit is 45%, in which choice below are the components of blood correctly ranked in order of decreasing percent of total volume?

white blood cells, plasma, red blood cells

red blood cells, white blood cells, plasma

plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells

plasma, white blood cells, red blood cells

Which of these diseases involves a problem with the red blood cells?

leukocytosis

hemophilia

leukemia

sickle-cell anemia

A person with a vitamin B₁₂ or folic acid deficiency would probably also have

anemia

polycythemia

leukemia

leukocytosis

Which describes anemia?

a deficiency of white blood cells

a high level of hemoglobin

a reduction in oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood

an excessive number of red blood cells

Aplastic anemia is caused by

a defective gene for hemoglobin

inability to absorb vitamin B₁₂

exposure to toxic chemicals or radiation

iron deficiency

The percentage of whole blood volume occupied by the red blood cells is the

specific gravity

differential cell count

hematocrit

viscosity

Based on lab results that show a person has a total white blood cell count of 7,000 WBC / mm³ blood, you would conclude that this person

has hemophilia

exhibits leukopenia

has leukocytosis

has a normal white blood cell count

Based on the results of a differential WBC count shown in the table, this person has

basophils	1%
eosinophils	10%
neutrophils	56%
lymphocytes	25%
monocytes	8%

mononucleosis

leukopenia

allergies or a parasitic worm infection

an acute bacterial infection

The buffy coat, a layer that appears when blood is centrifuged for determining the hematocrit, is made of

plasma only

plasma proteins only

plasma proteins and red blood cells

white blood cells and platelets

Which of these conditions would most likely cause an increase in the number of reticulocytes in the blood?

blood loss

bacterial infection

dehydration

hemophilia

An abnormally high number of normal white blood cells is called

leukemia

leukocytosis

leukopenia

leukopoiesis

Hemophilia is caused by

hypersecretion of erythropoietin

a deficiency of any clotting factor

overproduction of platelets

abnormal hemoglobin

Blood disorder characterized by the rupture of red blood cells on infection by protozoa is

septicemia

malaria

infectious mononucleosis

AIDS

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