GED Practice Test

Directions:

The Social Studies Test consists of multiple-choice questions that measure general social studies concepts. The questions are based on short readings that often include a map, graph, chart, cartoon, or figure. Study the information given and then answer the question(s) following it. Refer to the information as often as necessary in answering the questions.

You should try to complete the 25 questions on this test in 35 minutes or less. Work carefully, but do not spend too much time on any one question. Answer every question.

When you have finished the test, click on Submit Answers to receive feedback and results. You may also choose to e-mail your results to your instructor. To determine your GED standard score, click on GED Score in the sidebar on the left-hand side of your screen.

Questions 1 through 3 refer to the following information.

When American colonists dreamed of their ideal land, they were probably dreaming of the middle colonies: Pennsylvania, Delaware, New York, and New Jersey. In these four colonies there were long, navigable rivers and rich soils. The sun was bright, the temperature moderate, the growing season long. The typical farm in the middle colonies was 200 acres, of which, perhaps one-half was cleared and planted. The farmers grew vegetables and fruit, but their major crop was grain: wheat, barley, oats, rye, and corn. Even with the poor tools and the wasteful techniques of colonial agriculture, Pennsylvania farmers could produce a surplus. Thus the middle-colony farmers were not just self-sufficient; they were commercial farmers. Their colonies were nicknamed the "bread colonies" because of all the grain they sold each year to other English colonies and to Europe.


1	Which of the following is the author's main conclusion?
		A)	In the middle colonies there were long, navigable rivers and rich soils.
		B)	The typical farm was 200 acres.
		C)	The major crop in the middle colonies was grain.
		D)	Middle-colony farmers were not just self-sufficient; they were commercial farmers.
		E)	The middle colonies were nicknamed the "bread colonies" because of all the grain they sold.


2	Which of the following is an opinion offered by the passage?
		A)	Pennsylvania, Delaware, New York, and New Jersey made up the middle colonies.
		B)	The middle colonies had a long growing season.
		C)	The middle colonies fulfilled American colonists' vision of an ideal land.
		D)	Grain was the major crop of the middle colonies.
		E)	The middle colonies were nicknamed the "bread colonies."


3	The information in the passage supports which of the following conclusions?
		A)	Middle-colony farmers who grow grain crops are likely not to have surpluses.
		B)	Middle-colony farmers probably had money for things other than basic necessities.
		C)	Grain was the main import of the other English colonies.
		D)	Even today, the four states that were in the middle colonies are the nation's richest agricultural region.
		E)	The middle colonies would soon turn from agriculture to industry.

Questions 4 and 5 refer to the following map.


4	Which of the following crops is important near the southwest coast of India?
		A)	tea
		B)	sugar
		C)	copra
		D)	iron ore
		E)	Bombay


5	Which of the following assumptions can be made based on information from the map?
		A)	Agriculture and mining are important components of India's economy.
		B)	The Indian economy is totally agricultural.
		C)	Vijayawada is rapidly growing as a center of industry.
		D)	The country's agriculture can barely sustain its population.
		E)	India is a rapidly industrializing nation.

Questions 6 and 7 refer to the following information.

Patronage, also known as the "spoils system," is the practice of giving government jobs in return for political support. Early in U.S. history, elected officials were free to appoint employees on the basis of political loyalty, friendship, or any other consideration. But in 1883, reformers succeeded in establishing the U.S. Civil Service Commission. The commission administers competitive exams and makes appointments on the basis of merit. Today, almost all federal jobs come under this civil service system.


6	Which of the following illustrates the use of patronage?
		A)	A president nominates an ambassador to Brazil and sends her name to the Senate for its advice and consent.
		B)	A presidential candidate chooses his vice-presidential running-mate.
		C)	A governor appoints someone commissioner in return for a large campaign contribution.
		D)	A postal worker informs her unemployed brother that a post office civil service exam will soon be given.
		E)	The newly elected mayor of a large city hires his nephew as a personal assistant.


7	What is the most likely reason why reformers thought a merit system was necessary?
		A)	They wanted to put their own friends in government jobs.
		B)	They believed all government jobs should be held by elected officials.
		C)	They wanted to upgrade government jobs by hiring only college graduates.
		D)	Patronage contributed to corruption and incompetence in government.
		E)	Patronage had brought a new efficiency to government.

Questions 8 and 9 refer to the following cartoon and information.

In the early 1750s, the threat of a French attack on the American colonies prompted discussions of defense. Benjamin Franklin made his view known in the above cartoon, which was published in the Pennsylvania Gazette.


8	In the cartoon above, what do the segments of the snake stand for?
		A)	the colonies
		B)	secret defense plans
		C)	Franklin's supporters
		D)	Native American tribes allied with France
		E)	European countries allied against France


9	Based on the cartoon, which of the following opinions did Franklin probably hold?
		A)	The colonies must unify for defense.
		B)	The French would not attack the colonies.
		C)	The Native Americans would join the French.
		D)	The colonies faced defeat unless they separated from Great Britain.
		E)	The colonies would be defeated unless Great Britain came to their defense.

Questions 10 and 11 refer to the following map and information.

From 1932 to 1936, the entire United States received less than average rainfall. Lakes and rivers dried up, plants withered, animals died. But on the High Plains, from the Dakotas to Texas, it was worse. West winds picked up the topsoil, which had taken centuries to accumulate, and blew it eastward. Winds carrying topsoil turned the New England snow red and dusted ships at sea. From 1935 to 1937, "black blizzards" boiled across the plains, covering the barren fields with dunes. Perhaps a million and a half ruined farmers packed up and headed west.

A severe drought occurs on the Great Plains about every twenty years. And the winds are ever-present. Why, then, was this one so devastating? The answer is, overtilling. Too many people planting too much on too many acres.
World War I had resulted in a huge market and high prices for wheat. An agricultural boom on the High Plains followed, and newly developed farm machinery, such as tractors, plows, and threshers made it possible. Between 1920 and 1930, five million acres of natural vegetation were plowed up on the Plains. When drought struck with particular intensity, unplanted fields and scorched crops had no protection against the winds.
Today, Plains farmers combat soil erosion with a variety of planting techniques, such as crop rotation, contour plowing, and planting trees for windbreaks. They irrigate, too, but water is scarce on the Great Plains. Even the Ogallala Aquifer, a giant reservoir beneath the Great Plains, is losing water.
Is another Dust Bowl possible? Some experts think so. They believe that only careful soil management, and perhaps a return to dry farming (covering the soil to hold in the moisture), can prevent another Dust Bowl disaster.


10	Which of the following best explains why farmers ruined by the drought headed west?
		A)	The West still had unclaimed land that could be homesteaded.
		B)	They hoped to find factory work in the industrial West.
		C)	They gave up farming and took up gold prospecting.
		D)	The soil and terrain of the West and the Midwest are very similar.
		E)	They hoped to find agricultural jobs in the direction away from the drought’s effects.


11	Which of the following is a major conclusion reached by the article?
		A)	From 1932 to 1936, the entire United States received less than average rainfall.
		B)	West winds picked up the topsoil and blew it eastward.
		C)	Some experts believe that only careful soil management, and perhaps a return to dry farming, can prevent another Dust Bowl disaster.
		D)	Between 1920 and 1930, five million acres of natural vegetation were plowed up on the Plains.
		E)	A severe drought occurs on the Great Plains about every twenty years.

Questions 12 through 15 refer to the following timeline.

2 million years ago	Homo habilis: the first toolmaker
100,000	Homo sapiens neanderthalensis: Neanderthal
35,000	Homo sapiens sapiens: Cro-Magnon
32,000	Flute: the first known musical instrument
29,000	Cave art
27,000	Figurines
23,000	Sewing needle
17,000	Spear-thrower
12,000	Bow and arrow
7,000	Ice Age ends: glaciers retreat


12	When Ice Age hunters invented the spear-thrower, they were able to hurl weapons faster and more accurately than they could barehanded. How long ago is this innovation believed to have taken place?
		A)	7,000 years ago
		B)	17,000 years ago
		C)	27,000 years ago
		D)	10,000 years after the development of the sewing needle
		E)	10,000 years before the development of the sewing needle


13	Based on the table, which of the following lived first?
		A)	Neanderthal
		B)	Homo sapiens sapiens
		C)	Homo sapiens neanderthalensis
		D)	Homo habilis
		E)	Cro-Magnon


14	An archaeologist unearths an ancient cave dwelling and several artifacts: a wall painting, a figurine, and a flute. From this information alone, what can the archaeologist assume about the time when the cave dwellers were living? The cave dwellers lived no earlier than
		A)	32,000 years ago
		B)	29,000 years ago
		C)	27,000 years ago
		D)	23,000 years ago
		E)	17,000 years ago


15	Excavated Ice Age villages in France show separate areas for cooking, butchering, and garbage disposal. Beads that were found in certain areas of camp also suggest the inhabitants had separate areas for making clothes. What other artifacts, if found near the beads, might lend support to the idea of an Ice Age garment district?
		A)	flutes
		B)	needles
		C)	figurines
		D)	bowls
		E)	arrows

Question 16 refers to the following information.

Our jury system is based on the idea that each jury member is qualified to weigh evidence and speak up for his or her interpretation of it. In actual practice, jurors do not treat each other as equals. In a study based on 49 mock jury trials, it was found that the social status of a juror was a strong factor influencing other jurors. The higher a juror’s social status, the more influence he or she had.


16	Which of the following hypotheses does the study suggest?
		A)	Jurors are seldom influenced by other jurors’ social status.
		B)	Social status is a factor in choosing who shall serve on juries.
		C)	Jurors with lower social status may be persuaded by jurors with higher social status.
		D)	Social status is the main factor influencing jurors.
		E)	Jurors are less influenced by the evidence than by the accused person’s social status.

Questions 17 through 19 refer to the following graph.


17	Which of the following occupations would NOT be considered one of the fastest growing from 1998–2008?
		A)	efficiency expert
		B)	legal secretary
		C)	nurse's aide
		D)	trial attorney
		E)	Web site developer


18	Which of the following CANNOT be verified by information on the graph?
		A)	In the ten years shown, the number of jobs for computer support specialists has more than doubled.
		B)	Growth in jobs for computer support specialists far exceeded growth in jobs for editorial assistants.
		C)	Between 1998 and 2008, it is projected that more jobs will have been added for computer engineers than for any other area of computer-related occupations.
		D)	Between 1998 and 2008, the percentage of designated specialist occupations is projected to increase 175 percent.
		E)	None of the occupations measured between 1998 and 2008 has shown a decline.


19	A job seeker shows the graph to an employment counselor and asks if it indicates that there are more jobs available for computer support specialists than there are for medical assistants. Which of the following is the counselor's best response?
		A)	There are 44 percent more jobs as a computer support specialist than there are for medical assistants.
		B)	This graph does not show the number of jobs in any category, only the percent of increase.
		C)	While 102 percent of the jobs are for computer engineer positions, only 58 percent of the jobs are for medical assistants.
		D)	There are actually more jobs available in desktop publishing than there are in systems analysis.
		E)	The number of computer support jobs is expected to increase by 102 percent, while the number of jobs for paralegals and legal assistants will increase by only 58 percent.

Question 20 refers to the following information.

The Sixth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution states:
In all criminal prosecutions, the accused shall enjoy the right to a speedy and public trial by an impartial jury of the state and district wherein the crime shall have been committed, which district shall have been previously ascertained by law, and to be informed of the nature and cause of the accusation; to be confronted with the witnesses against him; to have compulsory process for obtaining witnesses in his favor; and to have the assistance of counsel for his defense.


20	Which situation below would be prohibited by the Sixth Amendment?
		A)	The accused is denied bail.
		B)	The accused agrees to forgo a jury trial and pleads guilty to a lesser charge.
		C)	A person’s home is searched by police who have not obtained a warrant.
		D)	The accused cannot afford an attorney and is denied one.
		E)	The judge refuses to allow the press into the courtroom.


21	Which of the following is NOT a legal document?
		A)	a U.S. passport
		B)	a library card
		C)	a birth certificate
		D)	a social security card
		E)	a driver’s license with a photograph

Question 22 refers to the following information.

A Wage and Tax Statement, also known as the W-2 Form, is prepared for you by your employer and is sent to you after the first of the year. Your W-2 is a summary of how much money you earned for the year and the amounts that were withheld for state and federal taxes. It also reflects additional deductions or credits for specific types of job categories, heath care, tips, and family situations. You receive a W-2 Form from each employer you have had during the year. These Wage and Tax Statements are used when preparing your state and federal income tax returns.


22	Based on the Wage and Tax Statement shown, which of the following profiles does NOT fit with this statement?
		A)	a 28 year-old married truck driver
		B)	a 65 year-old customer service representative with three grandchildren
		C)	A 19 year old college student working weekends as a waitress
		D)	a 39 year-old divorced administrative assistant
		E)	a 45 year-old data processor with one married son

Question 23 refers to the following graph and information.

Dates of Some Major U.S. Wars:

Revolutionary War: 1775–1783
Civil War: 1861–1865
World War I: 1914–1918
World War II: 1939–1945
Vietnam War: 1964–1975


23	Which of the following is a conclusion that can be drawn from the graph and information?
		A)	The number of war deaths is directly related to the number of years a war is fought.
		B)	Factors other than the length of a war determine the number of war deaths.
		C)	The earlier the war, the more deaths there were.
		D)	Battles fought on the ground cause more deaths than battles fought from the air.
		E)	The War of 1812 was probably about the same length as the Spanish-American War.

Questions 24 and 25 refer to the following information.

Governments get money mainly through taxes. To increase their revenues, governments may increase tax rates. Sometimes this works, but sometimes the effect is the opposite; higher taxes can actually cause revenues to fall.


24	How could raising a sales tax result in less rather than more revenue for a particular state?
		A)	When a state raises taxes, it receives less money from the federal government.
		B)	When a government raises taxes, more people have to get second jobs.
		C)	A higher sales tax is difficult for poorer people to pay.
		D)	An increased sales tax may raise the cost of goods so much that consumers won't buy as much.
		E)	Many states have a sales tax but no income tax.


25	A representative is defending the idea that higher taxes can result in less revenue. Which of the following facts could be offered as evidence?
		A)	A single taxpayer earning $15,000 is in the 15 percent tax bracket while one earning $25,000 pays 28 percent.
		B)	Nevada has the second highest sales tax (6.5 percent) but ranks 36th in property taxes collected per person.
		C)	States with high taxes on cigarettes lose millions of dollars a year when bootleggers bring in cigarettes to sell from states with lower taxes.
		D)	In 1991, it cost the government $0.56 to collect each $100 in taxes.
		E)	The typical U.S. worker works 1 hour and 46 minutes a day to earn enough to pay federal taxes.

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