Hole's Human Anatomy & Physiology (Shier), 12th Edition

Learning Outcome 7.2

1			The patella is classified as a/an _____ bone by some anatomists.
			A)	short
			B)	flat
			C)	sesamoid
			D)	irregular

Learning Outcome 7.3

2			The long shaft of a bone such as the femur is called its ______.
			A)	epiphysis
			B)	epiphyseal plate
			C)	periosteum
			D)	diaphysis

Learning Outcome 7.4

3			During osteogenesis, which of the following cells would appear first?
			A)	fibroblast
			B)	osteocyte
			C)	osteoblast
			D)	osteoclast

Learning Outcome 7.4

4			Which bone developed by endochondral ossification?
			A)	tibia
			B)	parietal
			C)	occipital
			D)	temporal

Learning Outcome 7.4

5			When do the bones of the sternum become completely ossified?
			A)	5 years
			B)	12 years
			C)	20 years
			D)	25 years

Learning Outcome 7.4

6			During remodeling, about _____% of bone calcium is exchanged each year.
			A)	1
			B)	4
			C)	10
			D)	0.5

Learning Outcome 7.5

7			Vitamin D deficiency in an adult causes the condition known as _____.
			A)	rickets
			B)	osteoporosis
			C)	osteomalacia
			D)	giantism

Learning Outcome 7.5

8			A deficiency of _____ hormone could result in reduced physical size as well as mental retardation.
			A)	growth
			B)	thyroid
			C)	pituitary
			D)	parathyroid

Learning Outcome 7.7

9			Which of the following is an axial bone?
			A)	femur
			B)	vertebra
			C)	ilium
			D)	tibia

Learning Outcome 7.7

10			Which bone has no direct bony articulation with the skeleton?
			A)	hyoid
			B)	manubrium
			C)	patella
			D)	phalange

Learning Outcome 7.8

11			The _____ bone supports the lower jaw structures such as the tongue.
			A)	mandible
			B)	temporal
			C)	maxilla
			D)	hyoid

Learning Outcome 7.8

12			The coronal suture separates the _____ from parietal bones.
			A)	frontal
			B)	temporal
			C)	occipital
			D)	ethmoid

Learning Outcome 7.8

13			Which of the following does not contain a sinus?
			A)	ethmoid
			B)	sphenoid
			C)	frontal
			D)	occipital

Learning Outcome 7.8

14			There are _____ bones that make up the cranium.
			A)	6
			B)	7
			C)	8
			D)	9

Learning Outcome 7.8

15			What is the significance of the supraorbital foramen?
			A)	attachment of muscles
			B)	passage of blood vessels
			C)	contain the eye
			D)	is a bone articulation

Learning Outcome 7.8

16			The _____ suture separates the occipital from parietal bones.
			A)	lambdoidal
			B)	coronal
			C)	sagittal
			D)	squamous

Learning Outcome 7.8

17			Which bone contains the ear structures?
			A)	parietal
			B)	maxillary
			C)	temporal
			D)	sphenoid

Learning Outcome 7.8

18			Which bone has the mandibular fossa?
			A)	mandible
			B)	maxilla
			C)	ethmoid
			D)	temporal

Learning Outcome 7.8

19			Which sinus, or air cell area, has the potential of having a very serious and painful inflammation that could spread to the brain?
			A)	sphenoid
			B)	mastoid
			C)	ethmoid
			D)	frontal

Learning Outcome 7.8

20			What is found only on the cervical vertebrae?
			A)	spinous process
			B)	transverse process
			C)	transverse foramen
			D)	lamina

Learning Outcome 7.3

21			The _____ allows a bone to increase its diameter during periods of growth.
			A)	diaphysis
			B)	periosteum
			C)	endosteum
			D)	epiphysis

Learning Outcome 7.3

22			The articular ends of long bones are comprised of _____ tissue.
			A)	hyaline cartilage
			B)	fibrous
			C)	hematopoietic
			D)	bone

Learning Outcome 7.3

23			Spongy bone is also referred to as _____ bone.
			A)	cancellous
			B)	compact
			C)	cortical
			D)	fibrous

Learning Outcome 7.3

24			The center of each osteon contains the _____.
			A)	osteoblasts
			B)	Volkmann canal
			C)	Haversian canal
			D)	lacunae

Learning Outcome 7.3

25			Osteons have a _____, which provides a means of communication between them.
			A)	blood vessel
			B)	osteonic canal
			C)	Volkmann canal
			D)	canaliculi network

Learning Outcome 7.4

26			Which of these is the most differentiated and oldest?
			A)	fibroblast
			B)	osteoblast
			C)	osteocyte
			D)	chondroblast

Learning Outcome 7.4

27			The _____ represents an area for growth in the length of a long bone.
			A)	diaphysis
			B)	epiphysis
			C)	epiphyseal disk
			D)	periosteum

Learning Outcome 7.3

28			The _____ contain enzymes capable of breaking down the calcium matrix of bone tissue.
			A)	osteoblasts
			B)	osteoclasts
			C)	fibroblasts
			D)	osteogenic cells

Learning Outcome 7.4

29			When does ossification begin in a developing fetus?
			A)	6th month
			B)	30th day
			C)	3rd month
			D)	4th month

Learning Outcome 7.4

30			When do secondary ossification centers appear in the epiphyses?
			A)	sixth month fetus
			B)	birth to five years
			C)	three year old
			D)	eighth fetal month

Learning Outcome 7.4

31			Most cases of bone cancer probably involve an increase in the activity of the _____ cells.
			A)	osteoblast
			B)	osteocyte
			C)	osteoclast
			D)	fibroblast

Learning Outcome 7.5

32			The main factor which facilitates the movement of calcium through a cell membrane is _____.
			A)	growth hormone
			B)	the amount of calcium
			C)	osmotic pressure
			D)	vitamin D

Learning Outcome 7.5

33			The most important vitamin required for proper bone resorption and modeling is _____.
			A)	A
			B)	B12
			C)	C
			D)	D

Learning Outcome 7.5

34			Vitamin _____ is required to produce the organic matrix that allows bones to be pliable or hold teeth in their sockets.
			A)	A
			B)	B
			C)	C
			D)	D

Learning Outcome 7.5

35			An excess of pituitary growth hormone will result in a condition of _____ if first noted in an adult.
			A)	dwarfism
			B)	acromegaly
			C)	giantism
			D)	osteoporosis

Learning Outcome 7.5

36			The _____ hormones have an effect of increasing bone and muscle mass, especially evident at puberty.
			A)	growth
			B)	thyroid
			C)	sex
			D)	adrenal

Learning Outcome 7.5

37			An increase in the mass of bone tissue caused by physical stress is termed bone _____.
			A)	hypertrophy
			B)	osteomalacia
			C)	atrophy
			D)	cancer

Learning Outcome 7.5

38			A _____ fracture occurs when the broken bone is exposed to the outside by an opening in the skin.
			A)	pathologic
			B)	simple
			C)	traumatic
			D)	compound

Learning Outcome 7.5

39			Which is the first to occur following a bone fracture?
			A)	migration of fibroblasts
			B)	formation of a hematoma
			C)	osteoblast proliferation
			D)	development of granulation tissue

Learning Outcome 7.5

40			The callus that forms around a bone fracture is comprised of _____ tissue.
			A)	bone
			B)	hyaline cartilage
			C)	fibrocartilage
			D)	granulation

Learning Outcome 7.6

41			A forceps is an example of a _____ lever arrangement.
			A)	first-class
			B)	second-class
			C)	third-class
			D)	fulcrum

Learning Outcome 7.6

42			When the arm is straightened at the elbow, the bones and muscles are acting as a _____ lever.
			A)	first-class
			B)	misaligned
			C)	second-class
			D)	third-class

Learning Outcome 7.6

43			The origin of blood cells is the _____.
			A)	bone marrow
			B)	yolk sac
			C)	spleen
			D)	liver

Learning Outcome 7.6

44			Which of the following produce erythrocytes in an adult?
			A)	spleen
			B)	liver
			C)	bone marrow
			D)	lymph nodes

Learning Outcome 7.6

45			The color of the red bone marrow is mainly the result of _____.
			A)	blood
			B)	hemoglobin
			C)	fat tissue
			D)	iron

Learning Outcome 7.6

46			Which type of bone is the primary source of red marrow in an adult?
			A)	irregular
			B)	long
			C)	short
			D)	flat

Learning Outcome 7.6

47			The most prevalent salt in bone matrix is _____.
			A)	calcium
			B)	hydroxyapatite
			C)	phosphate
			D)	sodium chloride

Learning Outcome 7.6

48			Which of the following require calcium for normal functioning the least?
			A)	bone matrix
			B)	nerve tissue
			C)	muscles
			D)	blood clotting

Learning Outcome 7.10

49			Which of the following is not a main factor in the development of osteoporosis?
			A)	diet deficient in calcium
			B)	lack of exercise
			C)	normal aging
			D)	hormone deficiencies

Learning Outcome 7.1

50			Bone salts comprise ____% of the bone by weight.
			A)	10
			B)	50
			C)	70
			D)	98

Learning Outcome 7.7

51			Which of the following is an appendicular bone?
			A)	frontal
			B)	ethmoid
			C)	ulna
			D)	sacrum

Learning Outcome 7.8

52			The pectoral girdle is comprised of the clavicle and _____.
			A)	ribs
			B)	ulna
			C)	scapula
			D)	os coxa

Learning Outcome 7.8

53			The following are terms related to the pelvic girdle except which one?
			A)	os coxa
			B)	innominate
			C)	sacrum
			D)	ilium

Learning Outcome 7.8

54			Which of the following does not belong with the rest?
			A)	sacrum
			B)	coccyx
			C)	femur
			D)	os coxa

Learning Outcome 7.8

55			The term for finger bones is _____.
			A)	carpal
			B)	phalange
			C)	metacarpal
			D)	tarsal

Learning Outcome 7.8

56			How many phalanges are there in the body?
			A)	14
			B)	28
			C)	56
			D)	7

Learning Outcome 7.8

57			Which of the following is not a bone process?
			A)	trochanter
			B)	tubercle
			C)	tuberosity
			D)	fossa

Learning Outcome 7.8

58			What is the largest foramen in the body?
			A)	foramen magnum
			B)	optic foramen
			C)	obturator
			D)	mandibular

Learning Outcome 7.8

59			The cheekbone is called the _____ primarily.
			A)	mandible
			B)	zygomatic
			C)	maxilla
			D)	orbit

Learning Outcome 7.8

60			Which of the following is NOT a cranial bone?
			A)	frontal
			B)	lacrimal
			C)	sphenoid
			D)	ethmoid

Learning Outcome 7.8

61			What is the location of the pituitary gland?
			A)	ethmoid sinuses
			B)	parietal bone
			C)	foramen magnum
			D)	sella turcica

Learning Outcome 7.8

62			Which bone has the crista galli projection?
			A)	ethmoid
			B)	sphenoid
			C)	frontal
			D)	maxilla

Learning Outcome 7.8

63			The nasal septum is comprised of the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and the _____.
			A)	maxilla
			B)	vomer
			C)	nasal bone
			D)	lacrimal bone

Learning Outcome 7.8

64			The hard palate is made of the palatine and _____ bones.
			A)	mandible
			B)	ethmoid
			C)	sphenoid
			D)	maxilla

Learning Outcome 7.8

65			The _____ is the area that houses the teeth.
			A)	mandibular fossa
			B)	alveolar process
			C)	maxillary fossa
			D)	mental fossa

Learning Outcome 7.8

66			The spinal nerves will exit from the _____ foramina.
			A)	spinal
			B)	intervertebral
			C)	transverse
			D)	vertebral

Learning Outcome 7.8

67			The first vertebra is called the _____.
			A)	axis
			B)	atlas
			C)	cervical
			D)	dens

Learning Outcome 7.8

68			The _____ can be felt during a vaginal examination and be used for obstetric measurements.
			A)	coccyx
			B)	sacroiliac symphysis
			C)	sacral promontory
			D)	sacral hiatus

Learning Outcome 7.8

69			A lateral deviation of the alignment of the vertebral column is called a _____.
			A)	kyphosis
			B)	lordosis
			C)	scoliosis
			D)	slipped disk

Learning Outcome 7.8

70			Which is the largest of the tarsal bones?
			A)	cuboid
			B)	navicular
			C)	calcaneus
			D)	lateral cuneiform

Learning Outcome 7.3

71			The outer covering of each bone, made from fibrous connective tissue, is called the ________________.
			A)	epiphysis
			B)	diaphysis
			C)	articular cartilage
			D)	periosteum

Learning Outcome 7.3

72			Inside the epiphyses of each long bone, mostly ________________ can be found.
			A)	compact bone
			B)	spongy bone
			C)	cartilage
			D)	yellow marrow

Learning Outcome 7.3

73			Several layers of cells reside within epiphyseal disks of developing long bones. Which layer is responsible for anchoring the disk to the bony epiphysis?
			A)	cells undergoing mitosis
			B)	cells enlarging and becoming calcified
			C)	dead cells with calcified intercellular substance
			D)	resting cells

Learning Outcome 7.3

74			The cells that tear down and remodel bone are the ________________.
			A)	osteoblasts
			B)	osteocytes
			C)	osteoclasts
			D)	macrophages

Learning Outcome 7.8

75			A soft spot in a newborn's skull is called a __________________.
			A)	fontanel
			B)	fovea
			C)	foramen
			D)	fissure

Learning Outcome 7.8

76			The _______________ suture joins the temporal and parietal bones of the skull.
			A)	lambdoid
			B)	squamosal
			C)	coronal
			D)	sagittal

Learning Outcome 7.8

77			The membranes that surround the brain attach to the crista galli, found on the ________________ bone of the skull.
			A)	frontal
			B)	parietal
			C)	ethmoid
			D)	sphenoid

Learning Outcome 7.8

78			The prominent portions of the cheeks are made up of the _________________ bones.
			A)	maxillary
			B)	palatine
			C)	lacrimal
			D)	zygomatic

Learning Outcome 7.8

79			The ______________ of a typical vertebra projects posteriorly, and is thickest and most blunt in appearance in lumbar vertebrae.
			A)	spinous process
			B)	transverse process
			C)	superior articulating process
			D)	lamina

Learning Outcome 7.8

80			Two kinds of bones form the pectoral girdle: the clavicle and the ________________.
			A)	humerus
			B)	ulna
			C)	scapula
			D)	sternum

Learning Outcome 7.8

81			Another name for the wrist bones is _______________.
			A)	metacarpals
			B)	carpals
			C)	phalanges
			D)	tarsals

Learning Outcome 7.8

82			The femur inserts into the coxal bone at the ____________________.
			A)	patella
			B)	trochanter
			C)	condyle
			D)	acetabulum

Learning Outcome 7.5

83			Which bone would contain significant amounts of red bone marrow in an adult?
			A)	femur
			B)	sternum
			C)	humerus
			D)	tibia

Learning Outcome 7.2

84			By morphology, the parietal bone can be classified as a _____ bone.
			A)	long
			B)	short
			C)	flat
			D)	irregular

Learning Outcome 7.3

85			The medullary cavity in the diaphysis of an adult bone would contain _____.
			A)	compact bone mainly
			B)	spongy bone mainly
			C)	red bone marrow
			D)	yellow bone marrow

Learning Outcome 7.2

86			The part of the bone that the articular cartilage covers directly is the _____.
			A)	diaphysis
			B)	endosteum
			C)	epiphysis
			D)	periosteum

Learning Outcome 7.2

87			The junction between the diaphysis and epiphysis in a growing bone is called the _____.
			A)	endosteum
			B)	periosteum
			C)	epiphyseal plate
			D)	articular cartilage

Learning Outcome 7.5

88			Which type of bone fracture occurs as an incomplete break in the bone?
			A)	greenstick
			B)	oblique
			C)	compound
			D)	simple

Learning Outcome 7.5

89			Which type of fracture breaks the bone into several fragments?
			A)	complete
			B)	impacted
			C)	comminuted
			D)	spiral

Learning Outcome 7.5

90			What is the last stage in the repair of a fracture?
			A)	bony callus
			B)	hematoma
			C)	inflammation
			D)	fibrocartilage callus

Learning Outcome 7.10

91			Which sinus inflammation in the skull could most commonly lead to deafness?
			A)	frontal sinus
			B)	maxillary sinus
			C)	mastoid sinus
			D)	ethmoid sinus

Learning Outcome 7.8

92			Which skull bone is not part of the cranium?
			A)	frontal
			B)	temporal
			C)	ethmoid
			D)	maxilla

Learning Outcome 7.8

93			Which bone contains the foramen magnum?
			A)	parietal
			B)	occipital
			C)	sphenoid
			D)	ethmoid

Learning Outcome 7.8

94			Which of these bones has a prominent spine?
			A)	femur
			B)	humerus
			C)	pubis
			D)	scapula

Learning Outcome 7.6

95			Bone processes are genetically produced for the purpose of serving as attachment points for later muscles.
			A)	True
			B)	False

Learning Outcome 7.5

96			Rickets is a condition, which causes bones to bend because of the lack of vitamin D and calcium.
			A)	True
			B)	False

Learning Outcome 7.5

97			Excess pituitary growth hormone will cause an 18-year-old to become a giant.
			A)	True
			B)	False

Learning Outcome 7.5

98			Active exercise can actually cause an increase in the mass and strength of bone.
			A)	True
			B)	False

Learning Outcome 7.3

99			Yellow bone marrow has lost its hematopoietic ability.
			A)	True
			B)	False

Learning Outcome 7.5

100			A low level of blood calcium could be the cause that increases the activity of the osteoclasts.
			A)	True
			B)	False

Learning Outcome 7.8

101			A Wormian bone is an extra bone in the skull usually found in the mandible.
			A)	True
			B)	False

Learning Outcome 7.8

102			The mandibular foramen is located on the deep surface of the mandible and is a common dental anesthetic injection site.
			A)	True
			B)	False

Learning Outcome 7.4

103			The anterior fontanel is a neonatal area of fibrous membrane that is the first to close.
			A)	True
			B)	False

Learning Outcome 7.8

104			There is a frontal or metopic suture that separates the frontal bone into two parts.
			A)	True
			B)	False

Learning Outcome 7.4

105			There are more vertebrae in a fetus than there will be in the adult stage.
			A)	True
			B)	False

Learning Outcome 7.4

106			The cervical flexure in the neck region will develop during a secondary process as the infants raise their heads.
			A)	True
			B)	False

Learning Outcome 7.8

107			Rib pair number eight is called vertebrochondral ribs because they attach to the cartilage of the seventh rib.
			A)	True
			B)	False

Learning Outcome 7.8

108			The angle of Louis occurs between the first two parts of the sternum and has diagnostic value.
			A)	True
			B)	False

Learning Outcome 7.8

109			The lower ribs are firmly attached to the xiphoid process.
			A)	True
			B)	False

Learning Outcome 7.8

110			The surgical neck is an area just below the head of the humerus.
			A)	True
			B)	False

Learning Outcome 7.8

111			The deltoid tuberosity is a ridge on the ulna for attachment of a muscle.
			A)	True
			B)	False

Learning Outcome 7.8

112			The olecranon process of the humerus articulates with the olecranon fossa of the ulna.
			A)	True
			B)	False

Learning Outcome 7.8

113			The head of the radius articulates with the capitulum of the humerus.
			A)	True
			B)	False

Learning Outcome 7.8

114			There are seven carpals and eight tarsals.
			A)	True
			B)	False

Learning Outcome 7.1

115			Bone is comprised of several tissues including cartilage and blood.
			A)	True
			B)	False

Learning Outcome 7.10

116			Although the bones in an elderly person represent dead tissue, they still perform a function of support.
			A)	True
			B)	False

Learning Outcome 7.8

117			The acetabulum is made up of the ilium and pubis bone.
			A)	True
			B)	False

Learning Outcome 7.9

118			The angle of the pubic arch is probably greater in the female than in the male.
			A)	True
			B)	False

Learning Outcome 7.8

119			The tibial tuberosity acts as an attachment for the head of the fibula.
			A)	True
			B)	False

Learning Outcome 7.1

120			The skeletal system plays key roles in the function of the circulatory system and immunity.
			A)	True
			B)	False

Learning Outcome 7.1

121			Most of the skeleton is comprised of fibrous membrane before birth.
			A)	True
			B)	False

Learning Outcome 7.4

122			The soft spots on a newborn skull are called fontanels and are comprised of dense connective tissue.
			A)	True
			B)	False