A 42-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath. She was recently started on warfarin for a proximal DVT and you immediately suspect pulmonary embolism (PE). You obtain a spiral CT scan, which shows a thrombus in the right pulmonary artery, and you arrange for admission to the hospital. Prior to the initiation of any therapy, her coagulation studies return and show INR 2.8 and aPTT 49 seconds.

1		Which of the following statements is most likely correct?
			A)	The patient may have an antiphospholipid antibody.
			B)	The patient should have a caval filter placed.
			C)	The elevated INR and aPTT suggest that the patient's sample is contaminated with heparin.
			D)	Malignancy cannot explain why the patient has had a second VTE.
			E)	The patient is noncompliant with her warfarin.